C++ Institute CPP CPA, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: CPP

Nom d'Examen: C++ Institute (C++ Certified Professional Programmer)

Questions et réponses: 230 Q&As

Code d'Examen: CPA

Nom d'Examen: C++ Institute (C++ Certified Associate Programmer)

Questions et réponses: 220 Q&As

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NO.1 What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <list>
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
template<class T> void print(T start, T end) {
while (start != end) {
std::cout << *start << " "; start++;
}
}
class A {
int a;
public:
A(int a):a(a){}
operator int () const { return a;}int getA() const { return a;}
};
int main() {
int t1[] ={ 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10};
list<A> l1(t1, t1 + 10);
list<A> l2(l1);
l2.reverse(); l1.splice(l1.end(),l2);
l1.pop_back();l1.unique();
print(l1.begin(), l1.end()); cout<<endl;
return 0;
}
A. compilation error
B. runtime exception
C. program outputs: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2
D. program outputs: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2
E. program outputs: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
Answer: C

C++ Institute   CPP   CPP   CPP

NO.2 What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
#include <vector>
using namespace std;
class A {
int a;
public:
A(int a) : a(a) {}
int getA() const { return a; } void setA(int a) { this?>a = a; }
bool operator==(const A & b) const { return a == b.a; }
};
bool compare(const A & a, const A & b) { return a == b; }
int main () {
int t[] = {1,2,3,3,5,1,2,4,4,5};
vector<A> v (t,t+10);
vector<A>::iterator it = v.begin();
while ( (it = adjacent_find (it, v.end(), compare)) != v.end()) {
cout<<it?v.begin()<<" ";it++;
}
cout<< endl;
return 0;
A. program outputs: 2 3
B. program outputs: 2 7
C. program outputs: 3 8
D. compilation error
E. program will run forever
Answer: B

C++ Institute examen   CPP   CPP examen

NO.3 What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
using namespace std;
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator() (const T & val ) { out<<val<<" "; } };
struct Add {
int operator()(int & a, int & b) {
return a+b;
}
};
int main() {
int t[]={1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10};
vector<int> v1(t, t+10);
vector<int> v2(10);
transform(v1.begin(), v1.end(), v2.begin(), bind1st(1,Add()));
for_each(v2.rbegin(), v2.rend(), Out<int>(cout));cout<<endl;
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
C. 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
D. 11 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2
E. compilation error
Answer: E

C++ Institute   CPP   certification CPP   CPP

Android OA0-002 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: OA0-002

Nom d'Examen: Android (Android Application Engineer Certifications Basic )

Questions et réponses: 139 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of these is the incorrect folder as a folder that is created automatically after completion of the
Android Development Tools Plugin New Project Wizard?
A. dat
B. gen
C. res
D. src
Answer: A

certification Android   OA0-002   OA0-002   OA0-002

NO.2 Which is the incorrect explanation of an Activity?
A. If another Activity is instantiated when the Activity is executed, onPause() will be executed.
B. When the Activity is displayed in the foreground, onResume() will be executed.
C. When the Activity is displayed again, onRestart() will be executed instead of onStart().
D. When the Activity returns from an onPause(), it sometimes can execute from onCreate().
Answer: C

Android   certification OA0-002   certification OA0-002   OA0-002 examen   OA0-002   certification OA0-002

NO.3 Which of these is the correct interface definition used to bind a Service?
A. AIDL
B. IDL
C. KML
D. XML
Answer: A

Android   OA0-002   OA0-002 examen

NO.4 Which of these is the incorrect explanation of the MenuItem interface?
A. The MenuItem instance will be returned by the Menu class add(...) method.
B. MenuItem can decide the Intent issued when clicking menu components.
C. MenuItem can display either an icon or text.
D. MenuItem can set a checkbox.
Answer: C

Android   OA0-002 examen   OA0-002   OA0-002

NO.5 Which of these is not defined as a screen display state?
A. Visible
B. Foreground
C. Background
D. Non-visible
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which configuration file holds the permission to use GPS?
A. Layout file
B. Manifest file
C. Source file
D. Property file
Answer: B

Android examen   certification OA0-002   OA0-002   OA0-002

NO.7 Which of these is the correct explanation of an XML layout file?
A. In order to display a Ul defined in the XML layout file "main.xml", call the setContentView method of the
Activity with the parameter string Bmain.xml".
B. There is no distinction between implementation of the layout definition by code, or by XML layout file.
C. In an Eclipse project using the ADT plugin, the XML layout file is found in the /res/layout directory.
D. Layout information written in the XML layout file will be converted into code by the Android platform
when the screen is displayed.
Answer: C

certification Android   OA0-002   certification OA0-002   certification OA0-002   certification OA0-002   OA0-002 examen

NO.8 Which of these is the correct explanation of BroadcastReceiver?
A. The process which BroadcastReceiver makes active will be protected so that it cannot be force-quit.
B. BroadcastReceiver will only be assumed active when executing getReceive().
C. BroadcastReceiver notifies the source of optional processing results based on the broadcast
contact(s).
D. BroadcastReceiver displays a user interface.
Answer: A

Android   certification OA0-002   OA0-002   OA0-002   certification OA0-002

NO.9 Which of these is the incorrect explanation of the androiddebuggable attribute of the
AndroidManifest.xm <application> tag.?
A. If not set, it will be handled as "false".
B. It is necessary to set this to "true" in order to use Eclipse's breakpoint function.
C. The android:debuggable setup value can be read by an application.
D. When releasing the application, deleting android:debuggable is recommended.
Answer: B

Android   OA0-002   OA0-002   certification OA0-002   OA0-002 examen   certification OA0-002

NO.10 Which is the correct file name of the NinePatch image created from a PNG using draw9patch? (Assume
the file name of the original graphic was sample.png.)
A. sample-9.png
B. sample_9.png
C. sample.png
D. sample.9.png
Answer: D

Android   certification OA0-002   certification OA0-002   OA0-002

CTAL-TM-001 CTFL-001 CTAL_TM_001 IREB dernières questions d'examen certification ISQI et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: CTAL-TM-001

Nom d'Examen: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Test Manager)

Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

Code d'Examen: CTFL-001

Nom d'Examen: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level)

Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

Code d'Examen: CTAL_TM_001

Nom d'Examen: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Test Manager)

Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

Code d'Examen: IREB

Nom d'Examen: ISQI (IREB Certified Professional for Requirements Engineering)

Questions et réponses: 84 Q&As

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NO.1 You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist. Which
of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit
A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions
C. Status compared against the started exit criteria
D. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to be achieved
Answer: D

ISQI   certification CTAL_TM_001   certification CTAL_TM_001   CTAL_TM_001

NO.2 Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on reporting back on their
status. Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1 credit
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent
IV. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (ii) and (iv)
Answer: D

ISQI   CTAL_TM_001   certification CTAL_TM_001

NO.3 You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical monitoring &
diagnostics package in the medical area. Which of the following would you least expect to see addressed
in the test plan? 1 credit
A. Availability
B. Safety
C. Portability
D. Reliability
Answer: C

ISQI   certification CTAL_TM_001   CTAL_TM_001   CTAL_TM_001 examen

NO.4 As part of the improvement program, the organization is also looking at tool support. Which type of tool
could be used to ensure higher quality of the code to be reviewed? 1 credit
A. Review tool
B. Test execution tool
C. Static analysis tool
D. Test design tool
Answer: C

ISQI   CTAL_TM_001   CTAL_TM_001 examen   CTAL_TM_001

NO.5 Identify the THREE types of formal peer reviews that can be recognized. 1 credit
A. Inspection
B. Management review
C. Walkthrough
D. Audit
E. Technical review
F. Informal review
G. Assessment
Answer: A,C,E

certification ISQI   CTAL_TM_001 examen   CTAL_TM_001   certification CTAL_TM_001

NO.6 Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you produce for the project
manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from the following options that can be used to report
to the project manager and would not be included in a report to senior management. 1 credit
A. Show details on effort spent
B. List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
C. Give product risk status
D. Show trend analysis
E. State recommendations for release
Answer: A,B

ISQI examen   CTAL_TM_001 examen   CTAL_TM_001   CTAL_TM_001 examen

NO.7 A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced in this domain in order to provide evidence
of testing. However, the level of detail of test logs can vary. Which of the following is NOT an influencing
factor for the level of detail of the test logs being produced? 1 credit
A. Level of test execution automation
B. Test level
C. Regulatory requirements
D. Experience level of testers
Answer: D

ISQI   CTAL_TM_001   certification CTAL_TM_001   certification CTAL_TM_001   CTAL_TM_001

NO.8 Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area, testing needs to be
rigorous and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify THREE measures
that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not always applicable in
other domains! 1 credit
A. High level of documentation
B. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions
C. Traceability to requirements
D. Non-functional testing
E. Master test planning
F. Test design techniques
G. Reviews
Answer: A,B,C

ISQI examen   CTAL_TM_001   CTAL_TM_001 examen   CTAL_TM_001

NO.9 What is the main reason why reviews are especially beneficial in the above-mentioned scenario? 2
credits
A. They ensure a common understanding of the product.
B. They find defects early.
C. They enhance project communication.
D. They can be performed without exercising the code.
Answer: D

certification ISQI   CTAL_TM_001   certification CTAL_TM_001

NO.10 Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to measure the
effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives? 1 credit
A. Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
B. Percentage of requirements covered
C. Lines of code written per developer per day
D. Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing
Answer: B

ISQI   CTAL_TM_001   CTAL_TM_001

Certification SOA Certified Professional de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen C90-03A C90-02A C90-01A, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: C90-03A

Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Cloud Technology Lab)

Questions et réponses: 21 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C90-02A

Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Cloud Technology Concepts)

Questions et réponses: 87 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C90-01A

Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Fundamental Cloud Computing(C90.01))

Questions et réponses: 69 Q&As

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NO.1 A ___________________ is a mechanism used to temporarily persist certain types of data as an
alternative to caching the data in memory.
Select the correct answer.
A.resource replicator
B.state management database
C.failover system
D.multi-device broker
Answer: B

certification SOA Certified Professional   certification C90-02A   C90-02A   C90-02A examen   certification C90-02A   C90-02A

NO.2 __________________ represents the ability of a cloud platform to keep track of the usage of its IT
resources by cloud consumers, and is therefore directly related to the __________________ mechanism.
Select the correct answer.
A.Replicated usage, cloud monitor
B.Measured usage, pay-for-use monitor
C.Agent usage, on-premise monitor
D.None of the above.
Answer: B

SOA Certified Professional   certification C90-02A   C90-02A examen   certification C90-02A   C90-02A examen

NO.3 The ____________________ is a service agent that can measure the usage of a cloud-based IT
resource by a cloud consumer for billing purposes.
Select the correct answer.
A.automated scaling listener
B.pay-for-use monitor
C.multi-device broker
D.resource replicator
Answer: B

SOA Certified Professional   C90-02A examen   C90-02A examen   C90-02A   C90-02A

NO.4 Assuming a cloud service is configured to support on-demand usage, which of the following cloud
computing mechanisms would the cloud provider need to use in order to keep track of what to charge
cloud consumers?
Select the correct answer.
A.on-demand usage listener
B.multi-device broker
C.resource billing replicator
D.None of the above.
Answer: D

certification SOA Certified Professional   certification C90-02A   C90-02A examen   C90-02A   C90-02A examen

NO.5 Which of the following statements are true about the failover system mechanism?
SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A.A failover system can only be used for legacy batch programs.
B.A failover system cannot span over more than one geographical region.
C.A failover system can be used to make redundant implementations of the same cloud service.
D.A failover system can be used to avoid introducing cloud services as single points of failure.
Answer: CD

SOA Certified Professional   certification C90-02A   certification C90-02A   C90-02A

NO.6 Which of the following cloud computing mechanisms can exist as a service agent that monitors and
keeps track of communication between cloud service consumers and cloud services for load balancing
purposes?
Select the correct answer.
A.multi-device broker
B.pay-for-use monitor
C.resource replicator
D.automated scaling listener
Answer: D

certification SOA Certified Professional   C90-02A   C90-02A   C90-02A

NO.7 A virtual server is a form of ____________________ software that emulates a(n)
____________________ computer.
Select the correct answer.
A.virtual monitoring, on-premise
B.virtual monitoring, cloud-based
C.virtualization, physical
D.virtualization, logical
Answer: C

certification SOA Certified Professional   C90-02A   C90-02A   C90-02A

NO.8 A hypervisor can independently manage and monitor the virtualization of multiple virtual servers, and is
therefore associated with the __________________ mechanism.
Select the correct answer.
A.pay-for-use monitor
B.automated scaling listener
C.multi-device broker
D.None of the above.
Answer: D

certification SOA Certified Professional   C90-02A   C90-02A   C90-02A examen   C90-02A

NO.9 A ____________________ is a pre-defined cloud-based platform comprised of a set of already installed
IT resources that can be used and customized by a cloud consumer.
Select the correct answer.
A.failover system
B.pay-for-use monitor
C.ready-made environment
D.multi-device broker
Answer: C

SOA Certified Professional examen   C90-02A examen   C90-02A examen   C90-02A

NO.10 Which of the following is an IT resource that can be provided in a ready-made environment?
Select the correct answer.
A.database
B.development tool
C.virtual server
D.All of the above.
Answer: D

SOA Certified Professional examen   certification C90-02A   C90-02A   C90-02A

NO.11 A failover system can increase ___________________and ___________________ by using
_______________ technology.?
Select the correct answer.
A.resources, usage thresholds, legacy
B.reliability, availability, clustering
C.flexibility, integrity, real-time
D.confidentiality, responsiveness, cloud
Answer: B

SOA Certified Professional examen   C90-02A   C90-02A   C90-02A

NO.12 Which of the following cloud computing mechanisms helps enable on-demand usage by allowing cloud
services to be configured to support higher usage thresholds automatically, and within pre-defined
parameters?
Select the correct answer.
A.pay-for-use monitor
B.automated scaling listener
C.multi-device broker
D.resource replication
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following IT resources are examples of multi-device brokers?
Select the correct answer.
A.An XML gateway that performs runtime transformation of messaging protocols.
B.A cloud storage gateway that performs runtime transformation of cloud storage device protocols.
C.A middleware product that performs runtime transformation of XML schemas.
D.All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.14 A ___________________ is an IT resource that contains mapping logic capable of performing runtime
transformation to enable communication between a cloud service and different types of cloud service
consumers.
Select the correct answer.
A.failover system
B.pay-for-use monitor
C.ready-made environment
D.multi-device broker
Answer: D

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NO.15 A cloud service can be hosted by a physical server or a virtual server. When using the failover system
mechanism, the same cloud service cannot be hosted by more than one physical server.
Select the correct answer.
A.True
B.False
Answer: B

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NO.1 You work as a Software Developer for Mansoft Inc. You create an application. You want to use the
application to encrypt data. You use the HashAlgorithmType enumeration to specify the algorithm used for
generating Message Authentication Code (MAC) in Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) communications.
Which of the following are valid values for HashAlgorithmType enumeration?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. MD5
B. None
C. DES
D. RSA
E. SHA1
F. 3DES
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.2 Which of the following concepts represent the three fundamental principles of information security?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Privacy
B. Availability
C. Integrity
D. Confidentiality
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.3 Availability Management allows organizations to sustain the IT service availability to support the
business at a justifiable cost. Which of the following elements of Availability Management is used to
perform at an agreed level over a period of time?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Maintainability
B. Resilience
C. Error control
D. Recoverability
E. Reliability
F. Security
G. Serviceability
Answer: A,B,D,E,F,G

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NO.4 Based on the information given in the case study, which two authentication methods should you use to
allow customers to access their photos on the Web site?
(Click the Exhibit button on the toolbar to see the case study.)
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Basic authentication without SSL
B. Digest authentication with SSL
C. Integrated Windows authentication
D. Anonymous access
E. Basic authentication with SSL
F. Digest authentication without SSL
Answer: B,E

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NO.5 How should you configure the Regional Centers' e-mail, so that it is secure and encrypted? (Click the
Exhibit button on the toolbar to see the case study.)
A. Use EFS.
B. Use IPSec.
C. Use S/MIME.
D. Use TLS.
Answer: C

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NO.6 John works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based
network. The company is aware of various types of security attacks and wants to impede them. Hence,
management has assigned John a project to port scan the company's Web Server. For this, he uses the
nmap port scanner and issues the following command to perform idleport scanning:
nmap -PN -p- -sI IP_Address_of_Company_Server
He analyzes that the server's TCP ports 21, 25, 80, and 111 are open.
Which of the following security policies is the company using during this entire process to mitigate the risk
of hacking attacks?
A. Audit policy
B. Antivirus policy
C. Non-disclosure agreement
D. Acceptable use policy
Answer: A

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NO.7 How long are cookies in effect if no expiration date is set?
A. Fifteen days
B. Until the session ends.
C. Forever
D. One year
Answer: B

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NO.8 You have successfully installed an IRM server into your environment. This IRM server will be utilized to
protect the company's videos, which are available to all employees but contain sensitive data. You log on
to the WSS 3.0 server with administrator permissions and navigate to the Operations section. What option
should you now choose so that you can input the RMS server name for the WSS 3.0 server to use.?
A. Self-service site management
B. Content databases
C. Information Rights Management
D. Define managed paths
Answer: C

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NO.9 You work as a Network Administrator for Net World Inc. The company has a TCP/IP-based network.
You have configured an Internet access router on the network. A user complains that he is unable to
access a resource on the Web. You know that a bad NAT table entry is causing the issue. You decide to
clear all the entries on the table. Which of the following commands will you use?
A. show ip dhcp binding
B. ipconfig /flushdns
C. ipconfig /all
D. clear ip nat translation *
Answer: D

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NO.10 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned a project to test the security of
www.we-are-secure.com. He wants to test the effect of a virus on the We-are-secure server. He injects
the virus on the server and, as a result, the server becomes infected with the virus even though an
established antivirus program is installed on the server. Which of the following do you think are the
reasons why the antivirus installed on the server did not detect the virus injected by John?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The virus, used by John, is not in the database of the antivirus program installed on the ser ver.
B. The mutation engine of the virus is generating a new encrypted code.
C. John has created a new virus.
D. John has changed the signature of the virus.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.11 Which of the following protocols provides secured transaction of data between two computers?
A. SSH
B. FTP
C. Telnet
D. RSH
Answer: A

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NO.12 You work as an Exchange Administrator for TechWorld Inc. The company has a Windows 2008 Active
Directory-based network. The network contains an Exchange Server 2010 organization.
The messaging organization contains one Hub Transport server, one Client Access server, and two
Mailbox servers.
You are planning to deploy an Edge Transport server in your messaging organization to minimize the
attack surface. At which of the following locations will you deploy the Edge Transport server?
A. Active Directory site
B. Intranet
C. Behind the inner firewall of an organization
D. Perimeter network
Answer: D

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NO.13 John works as an Exchange Administrator for Apple Inc. The company has a Windows 2003 Active
Directory domain-based network. The network contains several Windows Server 2003 servers. Three of
them have been configured as domain controllers. John complains to the Network Administrator that he is
unable to manage group memberships. Which of the following operations master roles is responsible for
managing group memberships?
A. PDC emulator
B. Infrastructure master
C. Schema master
D. RID master
Answer: B

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NO.14 A firewall is a combination of hardware and software, used to provide security to a network. It is used
to protect an internal network or intranet against unauthorized access from the Internet or other outside
networks. It restricts inbound and outbound access and can analyze all traffic between an internal
network and the Internet. Users can configure a firewall to pass or block packets from specific IP
addresses and ports. Which of the following tools works as a firewall for the Linux 2.4 kernel?
A. IPChains
B. OpenSSH
C. Stunnel
D. IPTables
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following protocols can help you get notified in case a router on a network fails?
A. SMTP
B. SNMP
C. TCP
D. ARP
Answer: B

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NO.16 You are the project manager of SST project. You are in the process of collecting and distributing
performance information including status report, progress measurements, and forecasts. Which of the
following process are you performing?
A. Perform Quality Control
B. Verify Scope
C. Report Performance
D. Control Scope
Answer: C

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NO.17 Your company is covered under a liability insurance policy, which provides various liability coverage for
information security risks, including any physical damage of assets, hacking attacks, etc.
Which of the following risk management techniques is your company using?
A. Risk acceptance
B. Risk transfer
C. Risk avoidance
D. Risk mitigation
Answer: B

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NO.18 You are a Consumer Support Technician. You are helping a user troubleshoot computer-related issues.
While troubleshooting the user's computer, you find a malicious program similar to a virus or worm. The
program negatively affects the privacy and security of the computer and is capable of damaging the
computer. Which of the following alert levels of Windows Defender is set for this program?
A. Low
B. High
C. Severe
D. Medium
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following are the goals of the cryptographic systems?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Availability
B. Authentication
C. Confidentiality
D. Integrity
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.20 Computer networks and the Internet are the prime mode of Information transfer today. Which of the
following is a technique used for modifying messages, providing Information and Cyber security, and
reducing the risk of hacking attacks during communications and message passing over the Internet?
A. Cryptography
B. OODA loop
C. Risk analysis
D. Firewall security
Answer: A

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NO.21 Which of the following types of virus is capable of changing its signature to avoid detection?
A. Stealth virus
B. Boot sector virus
C. Macro virus
D. Polymorphic virus
Answer: D

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NO.22 Your company is going to add wireless connectivity to the existing LAN. You have concerns about the
security of the wireless access and wish to implement encryption. Which of the following would be the
best choice for you to use?
A. WAP
B. WEP
C. DES
D. PKI
Answer: B

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NO.23 You work as the Senior Project manager in Dotcoiss Inc. Your company has started a software project
using configuration management and has completed 70% of it. You need to ensure that the network
infrastructure devices and networking standards used in this project are installed in accordance with the
requirements of its detailed project design documentation. Which of the following procedures will you
employ to accomplish the
task?
A. Physical configuration audit
B. Configuration control
C. Functional configuration audit
D. Configuration identification
Answer: A

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NO.24 Which of the following provides a credential that can be used by all Kerberos-enabled servers and
applications?
A. Remote Authentication Dial In User Service (RADIUS)
B. Internet service provider (ISP)
C. Network Access Point (NAP)
D. Key Distribution Center (KDC)
Answer: D

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NO.25 You are a Product manager of Marioxiss Inc. Your company management is having a conflict with
another company Texasoftg Inc. over an issue of security policies. Your legal advisor has prepared a
document that includes the negotiation of views for both the companies. This solution is supposed to be
the key for conflict resolution. Which of the following are the forms of conflict resolution that have been
employed by the legal
advisor?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Orientation
B. Mediation
C. Negotiation
D. Arbitration
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.26 In a complex network, Router transfers data packets by observing some form of parameters or metrics
provided in the routing table. Which of the following metrics is NOT included in the routing table?
A. Bandwidth
B. Load
C. Delay
D. Frequency
Answer: D

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NO.27 Which of the following statements are true about Dsniff?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is a virus.
B. It contains Trojans.
C. It is antivirus.
D. It is a collection of various hacking tools.
Answer: B,D

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NO.28 You work as a Network Administrator for ABC Inc. The company has a secure wireless network.
However, in the last few days, an attack has been taking place over and over again. This attack is taking
advantage of ICMP directed broadcast. To stop this attack, you need to disable ICMP directed broadcasts.
Which of the following attacks is taking place?
A. Smurf attack
B. Sniffer attack
C. Cryptographic attack
D. FMS attack
Answer: A

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NO.29 Mark is implementing security on his e-commerce site. He wants to ensure that a customer sending a
message is really the one he claims to be. Which of the following techniques will he use to ensure this?
A. Packet filtering
B. Authentication
C. Firewall
D. Digital signature
Answer: D

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NO.30 You work as a security manager for Qualxiss Inc. Your Company involves OODA loop for resolving and
deciding over company issues. You have detected a security breach issue in your company.
Which of the following procedures regarding the breach is involved in the observe phase of the OODA
loop?
A. Follow the company security guidelines.
B. Decide an activity based on a hypothesis.
C. Implement an action practically as policies.
D. Consider previous experiences of security breaches.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: AX0-100

Nom d'Examen: Axis (Axis Network Video Exam)

Questions et réponses: 145 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement is true regarding H.264 and Motion JPEG?
A. The highest bandwidth savings using H.264 compared to Motion JPEG is at high frame rates
B. Bandwidth savings using H.264 has nothing to do with frame rate, only scene complexity
C. Bandwidth savings using H.264 has nothing to do with frame rate, only Group of Video (GOV) setting
D. The highest bandwidth savings using H.264 compared to Motion JPEG is at low frame rates
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following allows customer to access between 2-4 channels of live and online stored video
at any time?
A. AXIS Camera Station
B. AXIS Video Hosting System (AVHS)
C. AXIS Camera Management
D. AXIS Media Control
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the main purpose of the Arctic Temperature Control functionality.?
A. To protect the camera electronics
B. To protect the camera mechanics
C. To protect the camera lens
D. To protect the camera power
Answer: B

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NO.4 In many places 24 V AC has been popular as a power source but now 12 V and 24 V DC is increasing in
popularity because
A. There is more energy in DC.
B. It is easier to back-up DC with battery.
C. There is less power loss in cables with DC.
D. There is less risk for surge with DC.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A company is looking for a dome designed to withstand vibrations inherent to transportation. Which of
the following cameras should be recommended?
A. AXIS P3344-VE
B. AXIS M3014
C. AXIS M3114-R
D. AXIS P1344
Answer: C

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NO.6 DRAG DROP
Match each function to the correct video surveillance system component. Drag each gray box from the left
column to the matching blue box in the right column.
Answer:

NO.7 In a network surveillance installation, the purpose of a router is to
A. Forward the video stream between networks.
B. Forward the video stream to the correct receiver within a network.
C. Separate audio and video traffic to reduce audio latency.
D. Separate the video stream from the camera control signaling.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which is an impact on cameras that are operating above their specified temperature limit?
A. Noise is increased
B. Frame rate is reduced
C. Light sensitivity is decreased
D. Resolution is reduced
Answer: A

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NO.9 A customer has a lot of motion blur on recordings from a fixed camera. What would be the most likely
setting to address the blurring?
A. Gain level
B. Brightness
C. Backlight compensation
D. Shutter speed
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following are outdoor rated products? (Choose two)
A. AXIS M3114-R
B. AXIS P3304-VR
C. AXIS P1344-E
D. AXIS P3344-VE
E. AXIS M1031-W
Answer: C,D

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NO.11 Which setting would best adjust a hard yellow tint as shown in the pictures below?
A. Image contrast
B. White balance
C. Color saturation
D. Image brightness
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which is a benefit of using VLANs and IP subnets?
A. An encrypted communication link is established over the internet, allowing surveillance video to be
securely viewed off-site
B. The network provides end-to-end encryption to prevent malicious users from intercepting network
traffic
C. The network will only allow access from authorized devices, eliminating the risk that malicious users
disconnect cameras to intercept network traffic
D. Network surveillance video can be kept separate from other network traffic, reducing the risk that
malicious users will intercept it
Answer: D

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NO.13 In setting up PTZ control for an Axis encoder, it's very easy to overlook a very important step in the
configuration process. After properly connecting the communication wires to the encoder, the next
recommended step in the setup is:
A. Downloading the correct Device ID from the Axis website
B. Setting the Baud Rate to match the analog PTZ' s
C. Setting the Device ID to match the analog ID
D. Uploading the correct PTZ driver
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following will allow a customer to have a PTZ camera automatically change between
three predefined positions?
A. Configure the camera's I/O ports to control the preset positions
B. Use the Guard Tour capability to switch between the preset positions
C. Switch between the predefined positions using a joystick
D. Use the auto tracking capability to switch between the preset positions
Answer: B

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NO.15 DRAG DROP
Match the protocol to its default port number. Drag each gray box from the left column to the matching
blue box in the right column.
Answer:

NO.16 Axis recommends shielded cables for outdoor installations primarily to ensure
A. Image quality.
B. Surge protection.
C. Life time of cable installations.
D. Conformity with SMPTE standard.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which is true regarding the use of a smoked (tinted) dome instead of a clear dome?
A. Decreases color fidelity
B. Decreases field of view
C. Disables infrared capabilities
D. Reduces light sensitivity
Answer: D

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NO.18 When initiating a surveillance project with a customer, which of the following should be considered first?
A. Understand which camera models to use
B. Understand the customer's technical knowledge
C. Understand the customer's goals and requirements
D. Understand the legal aspects for the installation
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which technology can a Video Management Software (VMS) partner incorporate to reduce the impact
on recorded video during server maintenance?
A. Local storage at the camera
B. Meta data stream
C. AXIS Camera Application Platform (ACAP)
D. SNMP
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following statements are true for H.264? (Choose two)
A. The size of an l-frame depends on the preceding P-frame
B. Increased motion in a scene means increased bit rate
C. Group of Video (GOV) length is directly affected by the sizes of the I- and P-frames
D. A P-frame references preceding and succeeding P-frames
E. Longer GOV length means reduced bit rate
Answer: B,E

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Les meilleures Autodesk Maya12-A Maya12.A MAYA11-A MAYA11.A Maya12_A examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: Maya12-A

Nom d'Examen: Autodesk (Maya 2012 Certified Associate Examination)

Questions et réponses: 30 Q&As

Code d'Examen: Maya12.A

Nom d'Examen: Autodesk (Maya 2012 Certified Associate Examination)

Questions et réponses: 30 Q&As

Code d'Examen: MAYA11-A

Nom d'Examen: Autodesk (Maya 2011 Certified Associate)

Questions et réponses: 30 Q&As

Code d'Examen: MAYA11.A

Nom d'Examen: Autodesk (Maya 2011 Certified Associate)

Questions et réponses: 30 Q&As

Code d'Examen: Maya12_A

Nom d'Examen: Autodesk (Maya 2012 Certified Associate Examination)

Questions et réponses: 30 Q&As

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L'avènement de la certification BlackBerry pratique d'examen BCP-621 BCP-520 BCP-421 BCP-223 BCP-222 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: BCP-621

Nom d'Examen: BlackBerry (Designing and Deploying a BlackBerry Solution v5.0 in a IBM Lotus Domino Environment)

Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

Code d'Examen: BCP-520

Nom d'Examen: BlackBerry (Integrating the BlackBerry MVS Solution)

Questions et réponses: 110 Q&As

Code d'Examen: BCP-421

Nom d'Examen: BlackBerry (Maintaining a BlackBerry Enterprise Server v5.0 in an IBM Lotus Domino Environment)

Questions et réponses: 99 Q&As

Code d'Examen: BCP-223

Nom d'Examen: BlackBerry (Supporting a BlackBerry Enterprise Server v5.0 in a Microsoft Exchange Environment)

Questions et réponses: 109 Q&As

Code d'Examen: BCP-222

Nom d'Examen: BlackBerry (Supporting a BlackBerry Enterprise Server v5.0 in an IBM Lotus Domino Environment)

Questions et réponses: 104 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following default host and ports will a system administrator need to browse to in order to
configure the BlackBerry Monitoring Service? (Choose one.)
A. https://<servername>:8443/webconsole/app
B. https://<servername>/webconsole/app
C. http://<servername>/webconsole/app
D. http://<servername>:8080/webconsole/app
E. https://<servername>:7443/webconsole/app
Answer: A

certification BlackBerry   BCP-222   BCP-222   BCP-222 examen   certification BCP-222

NO.2 After a system wide maintenance was completed in an organization, the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
was restarted. After a few minutes it was determined that the BlackBerry Dispatcher
Service was failing to start with the system specific error 5608. The system administrator also confirms
the following:
-The BlackBerry Administration Service console is unable to launch
-The BlackBerry Policy and BlackBerry Synchronization Services do not start
Which of the following would be the most likely cause of the issue? (Choose one.)
A. The SRP connection is down
B. Lost connectivity to the messaging server
C. Lost connectivity to the database server
D. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server disk subsystem has crashed
E. A new operating system patch has been installed on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
Answer: C

certification BlackBerry   BCP-222   BCP-222

NO.3 The BlackBerry Dispatcher Service communicates with the BlackBerry Collaboration Service, the
BlackBerry MDS Connection Service, the BlackBerry Policy Service and the BlackBerry Synchronization
Service using which of the following ports? (Choose one.)
A. Port 1433
B. This Port is dynamically created upon the BlackBerry Dispatcher Service Startup
C. Port 3200
D. This Port is dynamically created upon the BlackBerry Controller Service Startup
Answer: C

BlackBerry   BCP-222 examen   certification BCP-222   BCP-222

NO.4 During the enterprise activation process the following error is displayed on the BlackBerry device:
IT Policy Rejected What is a possible cause of this error? (Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry device has been activated on another BlackBerry Enterprise Server
B. The BlackBerry device is listed in the Enterprise Service Policy
C. The user does not have an IT policy assigned
D. The user does not have the appropriate role assigned
E. The BlackBerry Policy Service is not running
Answer: A

BlackBerry   BCP-222   BCP-222   BCP-222

NO.5 Which method of enterprise activation uses the BlackBerry Router Service to relay the activation email
to a users email address? (Choose one.)
A. Wi-Fi
B. Bluetooth
C. BlackBerry Desktop Manager
D. BlackBerry Administration Service
E. BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager
Answer: A

BlackBerry   BCP-222   BCP-222   certification BCP-222   BCP-222   BCP-222

NO.6 Which of the following options is NOT available in the BlackBerry Web Desktop Software? (Choose
one.)
A. Wired synchronization of organizer (PIM) data
B. Application Loader
C. Backup and Restore
D. Setting enterprise activation passwords
E. Configuring email message filters
Answer: A

BlackBerry   certification BCP-222   BCP-222

NO.7 .A BlackBerry device user is trying to send an email message but is receiving the following error when
trying to send: Failure at Service. The user is unable to send PIN messages as well. They are able to
make phone calls from the BlackBerry device. No other user on the BlackBerry
Enterprise Server is having this issue. What could a system administrator do to troubleshoot this issue?
(Choose one.)
A. Restart the BlackBerry Controller Service to force a mailboxrescan.
B. Associate the user's PIN number back into the database for the users information.
C. Contact the service provider to ensure the correct data provisioning for the user.
D. Wipe the BlackBerry device and complete and enterprise activation process.
E. Ensure the Send As permission is set in Active Directory for this user.
Answer: C

BlackBerry   BCP-222   BCP-222   BCP-222 examen

NO.8 How can a BlackBerry device user assign themselves their own enterprise activation password?
(Choose one.)
A. Inputtheir own password in the enterprise activation screen on the BlackBerry device
B. Specify an activation password in BlackBerry Desktop Manager
C. Launch BlackBerry Device Manager and specify their own activation password
D. When swapping BlackBerry devices the new BlackBerry device will automatically prompt the user for a
new activation password
E. Login to BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager and specify an activation password
Answer: E

BlackBerry   certification BCP-222   BCP-222 examen   BCP-222 examen   BCP-222   BCP-222 examen

NO.9 A BlackBerry device user is trying to login to the local Intranet web site but is not able to
authenticate. What could a system administrator do to assist the user with the authentication? (Choose
one.)
A. Resend the IPPP service books to the user that is experiencing the issue
B. Verify the proxy server information within the Blackberry MDS Connection Service
C. Restart the BlackBerry Administration Service to force resending of service books
D. Activate the user with the BlackBerry MDS Integration Service
E. Add the user's name to theserver.property xml file within the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
Answer: B

BlackBerry   BCP-222   BCP-222 examen   certification BCP-222   certification BCP-222

NO.10 During the final stage of the wireless enterprise activation the following error is displayed on the
BlackBerry device: IT requires that you connect this handheld to the device manager to continue
activation. What is a possible cause of this? (Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry device does not have data services enabled
B. The BlackBerry Synchronization Service is not started
C. Wireless backup has been disabled for the user
D. The BlackBerry device is running BlackBerry Device Software prior to 4.0
E. The Disable Wireless Bulk Loads IT policy has been enabled
Answer: E

BlackBerry examen   certification BCP-222   certification BCP-222

NO.11 Which of the following are two pieces of information that are required when configuring a remote
component for high availability? (Choose two.)
A. IP addresses
B. Fully Qualified Host Name
C. High Availability Pool Name
D. NetBios Name
E. DNS Alias
Answer: B,C

BlackBerry examen   certification BCP-222   BCP-222 examen   BCP-222   certification BCP-222

NO.12 After initializing the enterprise activation process on the BlackBerry device, the following error is
displayed: An error has occurred. Please contact your system administrator. What is a possible cause for
this? (Choose one.)
A. The user has not been assigned an IT policy
B. The BlackBerry Synchronization Service is not running
C. The BlackBerry device radio has not been turned on
D. The password that was entered is incorrect
E. The user has not been assigned the appropriate role in the BlackBerry Administration Service
Answer: D

BlackBerry   certification BCP-222   BCP-222   certification BCP-222   certification BCP-222

NO.13 What are the minimum versions for the BlackBerry Enterprise Solution to support Notes Native
Encryption? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry Device Software 4.1, BlackBerry Enterprise Server 4.1, BlackBerry Desktop
Manager 4.1, IBM Lotus Notes 7.0, and IBM Lotus Domino Server 7.0
B. BlackBerry Device Software 4.0, BlackBerry Enterprise Server 4.0, BlackBerry Desktop
Manager 4.0, IBM Lotus Notes 7.0 and IBM Lotus Domino Server 7.0
C. BlackBerry Device Software 4.2, BlackBerry Enterprise Server 5.0, BlackBerry Desktop
Manager 4.2, IBM Lotus Notes 7.0 and IBM Lotus Domino Server 7.0
D. BlackBerry Device Software 5.0, BlackBerry Enterprise Server 5.0, BlackBerry Web Desktop 1.0, IBM
Lotus Notes 8.0 and IBM Lotus Domino Server 8.0
E. BlackBerry Device Software 3.6, BlackBerry Enterprise Server 4.1, BlackBerry Desktop
Manager 4.1, IBM Lotus Notes 6.5 and IBM Lotus Domino Server 6.5
Answer: A

BlackBerry   BCP-222 examen   BCP-222   BCP-222 examen   BCP-222

NO.14 Which port is required to be open on the firewall in order for Wi-Fi data to pass from the
BlackBerry device to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose one.)
A. 3101
B. 4101
C. 1433
D. 1533
E. 7433
Answer: B

certification BlackBerry   certification BCP-222   BCP-222   BCP-222   BCP-222

NO.15 BlackBerry device users have been calling the support desk all day reporting message delays of 5 to
25 minutes. A request has been made to isolate the issue and identify the source. Which of the
following questions will assist with the process? (Choose three.)
A. Do the affected users span multiple messaging servers?
B. Are PIN messages delayed (sending and/or receiving)?
C. Is each user enabled for email message redirection?
D. Was the corporate firewall recently rebooted?
E. Are the messaging servers working properly and without issues?
Answer: A,B,E

BlackBerry   BCP-222   BCP-222   BCP-222

NO.16 How is the initial enterprise activation email message transmitted from the BlackBerry device? (Choose
one.)
A. Encrypted using AES
B. Encrypted using RSA
C. Plain text
D. Encrypted using Triple DES
E. As a hash
Answer: E

BlackBerry   BCP-222   certification BCP-222   BCP-222 examen

NO.17 What component is responsible for the encryption and decryption of data? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry Dispatcher Service
B. BlackBerry Administration Service
C. BlackBerry Controller Service
D. BlackBerry Messaging Agent Service
E. BlackBerry Router Service
Answer: A

certification BlackBerry   BCP-222 examen   BCP-222 examen

NO.18 The BlackBerry Monitoring Service can send notifications using which of the following methods?
(Choose three.)
A. Phone (VoIP)
B. Email
C. PIN
D. Network Broadcast
E. Instant Messaging
Answer: B,C,D

BlackBerry   BCP-222   BCP-222   BCP-222   certification BCP-222

NO.19 An organization policy has been changed and new security guidelines have been put in place. All
servers that require access to the public Internet must be placed in the DMZ. Which BlackBerry Enterprise
Server component can be place in the DMZ? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry Messaging Agent
B. BlackBerry Router Service
C. BlackBerry Dispatcher Service
D. BlackBerry Enterprise Server
E. BlackBerry Collaboration Service
Answer: B

BlackBerry examen   BCP-222   BCP-222   BCP-222 examen   BCP-222

NO.20 Where can you test the network connectivity from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server to the BlackBerry
Infrastructure? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry Administration Service
B. BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager
C. BlackBerry Server Configuration Panel
D. MDS Integration Service Administration Console
E. SQL Management Studio
Answer: C

BlackBerry examen   BCP-222   certification BCP-222   certification BCP-222

C_TB1200_88 C_EPMBPC_70 C_BOWI_30 C_BOSUP_90 C_BOE_30 dernières questions d'examen certification SAP et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: C_TB1200_88

Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP Business One 8.8)

Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C_EPMBPC_70

Nom d'Examen: SAP (Business Planning and Consolidation with SAP BPC 7.0)

Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C_BOWI_30

Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP BusinessObjects Web Intelligence XI 3.x)

Questions et réponses: 139 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C_BOSUP_90

Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Support Associate - Incident Management with SAP BusinessObjects)

Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C_BOE_30

Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP BusinessObjects Enterprise XI 3.x)

Questions et réponses: 239 Q&As

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C_BOWI_30 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/C_BOWI_30.html

NO.1 Which BusinessObjects Enterprise tool supports Offline Mode logins?
A. InfoView
B. Java Panel
C. Interactive Panel
D. Web Intelligence Rich Client
Answer: D

SAP   certification C_BOWI_30   C_BOWI_30   C_BOWI_30   C_BOWI_30

NO.2 Which four Report Elements can you select from the Templates tab of Web Intelligence?
(Choose four.)
A. Data
B. Report
C. Tables
D. Charts
E. Free-standing cells
Answer: B,C,D,E

SAP   certification C_BOWI_30   certification C_BOWI_30   C_BOWI_30   C_BOWI_30

NO.3 Which two search criteria are valid when using Delegated List of Values? (Choose two.)
A. a*
B. *a
C. a%
D. %a
Answer: A,B

SAP   C_BOWI_30   C_BOWI_30 examen   C_BOWI_30   certification C_BOWI_30

NO.4 Which two are benefits of creating queries from existing queries? (Choose two.)
A. Improved query security
B. Accurate duplication of query parameters
C. Improved performance of query execution
D. Reduced creation time for complex reports
Answer: B,D

certification SAP   certification C_BOWI_30   certification C_BOWI_30   C_BOWI_30 examen   C_BOWI_30

NO.5 Which two are benefits of using breaks? (Choose two.)
A. Creates a navigation map
B. Makes the table block easier to read
C. Splits the block into smaller table blocks
D. Enables the use of subtotals in one block
Answer: B,D

certification SAP   C_BOWI_30   C_BOWI_30

NO.6 You are creating a report to summarize the number of cars sold by region. Which object
should you use to aggregate the number of cars sold?
A. Sum
B. Detail
C. Measure
D. Dimension
Answer: C

SAP examen   C_BOWI_30   C_BOWI_30 examen

NO.7 Which three statements about the If() function are correct? (Choose three.)
A. Values within the function must be in quotes.
B. The function can be used to create a variable.
C. The function can contain an aggregate function.
D. Then and Else keywords can be used within the function instead of the semicolon.
Answer: B,C,D

SAP examen   certification C_BOWI_30   C_BOWI_30   C_BOWI_30

NO.8 Which operator should you use to control the output context of a calculation that is relevant
to the different environment levels within your document?
A. In
B. Out
C. ForAll
D. ForEach
Answer: A

certification SAP   C_BOWI_30   certification C_BOWI_30   certification C_BOWI_30   C_BOWI_30

NO.9 Which method can you use to change the object qualification of an object within Web
Intelligence Rich Client?
A. In the Query panel, select the qualification.
B. In the Document Properties, select the qualification.
C. In Query View, right-click and select the qualification.
D. Select the object, right-click and select the qualification.
Answer: A

SAP examen   C_BOWI_30   C_BOWI_30   C_BOWI_30   C_BOWI_30   certification C_BOWI_30

NO.10 Which two properties can you set in the hyperlink dialog box when you create a hyperlink to a
document?
(Choose two.)
A. Refresh on open
B. Color and font style for the link
C. Drill level for the target document
D. Link to a specific area in the document
Answer: A,D

certification SAP   C_BOWI_30   C_BOWI_30