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Code d'Examen: C-TFIN52-64
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Financial Accounting with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Consider the following sentences about field status:
1. Fields which ______ can be made ______.
2) Fields that can be entered, but are not required, can be set to ______ entry.
Which of the options below matches the blank spaces of those sentences?
A. must not have an entry/optional for 1; suppressed for 2)
B. must have an entry/suppressed for 1; suppressed for 2)
C. must have an entry/optional for 1; optional for 2)
D. must have an entry/required for 1; optional for 2)
E. must not have an entry/required for 1; optional for 2)
Answer: D

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NO.2 A document can only be reversed if: One or more is correct.
A. The original document contains no cleared line items, if the document does contain
cleared items, then
these items must be reset before reversal can take place.
B. The original document contains only customer, vendor and G/L line items.
C. The original document was posted in FI system or originating in other modules.
D. All specified values (such as, cost center) are not still valid.
Answer: A, B

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NO.3 SAP provides model charts of depreciation for many countries but we can also define
our own chart of
depreciation (by copying and changing)
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A

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NO.4 For which scenario can you use the cash journal?
A. To post incoming and outgoing payments in any transaction currency.
B. To make remittances to vendors.
C. To record documents that will not be included in the general ledger.
D. To manage cash in local branches and offices.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Asset history sheet is the most important and most comprehensive year end report or
intermediate
report
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.6 What do the posting keys specify? (4)
(Note: we can have more than one correct sentence. Please select the sentences you think
they are
correct)?
A. Whether the accounts are allowed for posting.
B. Whether the line items are valid for a business transaction.
C. Whether the line items contain "credit" or "debit" values.
D. Whether the line item is connected to a payment transaction or not.
E. Whether the posting is sales-relevant and the sales figure of the account is to be updated
by the
transaction, for example, by the posting of a customer invoice.
Answer: A, C, D, E

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NO.7 Several company codes can use the same chart of accounts, although they have
different charts of
depreciation
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.8 Company codes from different countries cannot tie processed in same payment run
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.9 Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements is false (Please choose the correct sentence)?
A. The account type field in terms of payment basic data screen should be defined
separately, to prevent
any done change in the term of payment.
B. Terms of payments are copied from invoice to credit memos when they are linked to.
C. Inserting a "V" in the invoice reference field during document entry means the terms of
payment are
activated in the non-invoice-related credit memos.
D. The day limits define the dates of the cash discount periods.
E. The system cannot define the splitment of an installment payment, at least you define it in
the terms of
payment.
Answer: D

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NO.10 It is possible for the planned depreciation to be displayed through through assigning
depreciation
terms and a planned start-up date to the order or project.
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.11 Preparation for year-end closing: (one or more options are true)
A. If you change any depreciation values, you must run depreciation posting again.
B. Once depreciation has been posted in FI-AA and FI, a balance sheet and profit and loss
statement can
be created.
C. If an area posts APC values to the general ledger periodically, you will need to run report
RAPERPOO
for periodic posting.
D. After the depreciation lists and asset history sheet have been checked, depreciation is
posted.
E. If the final result is not satisfactory, you can carry out depreciation simulation or (bulk)
changes, or
make adjustment postings.
Answer: A, B, C, D, E

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NO.12 What are the elements that are available to enter rules for the prerequisites (validation
& substitution)
and check (validation):
A. Logical Operator (boolean terms)
B. Comparison operators
C. Operands
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.13 According the Replacement Values: Index (one or more options may be true)
A. An indexed revaluation can also be calculated for accumulated depreciation and imputed
interest.
B. Only year-dependent index classes are used.
C. The index series must be assigned to an index class.
D. You enter the index series in the asset or in the asset class.
Answer: A, B, C, D

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NO.14 It is not possible to use two check series for making payment
A. False
B. True
Answer: A

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NO.15 The area menus can be displayed but not changed in area menu maintenance
A. false
B. true
Answer: A

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NO.16 What is the purpose of the terms of payment? (Please choose the correct sentence)
A. Define the baseline date.
B. Enable the cross-company code transactions.
C. Calculate a cash discount and invoice due date.
D. Calculate only the required conditions for SD invoices.
E. Calculate the tax amounts.
Answer: C

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NO.17 The ______ specifies the master data level at which each field can be maintained.
A. Maintenance level
Answer: A

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NO.18 What is a SAP Business Object (Please choose the correct sentence)?
A. It is all the transaction data generated via transactions.
B. It is the instanced class of the Class Builder.
C. It is composed of tables that are related in a business context, including the related
application
programs and it is maintained in the Class Repository.
D. It is the representation of a central business object in the real world, such as an employee,
sales order,
purchase requisition, invoice and so on.
E. It is a sequence of dialog steps that are consistent in a business context and that belong
together
logically.
Answer: D

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NO.19 What are the fields that can be used as selection criteria in reporting from the below
given options.
A. Evaluation groups: These are asset master data fields for which the user can specify use
and meaning.
B. Reason for investment: In this master record field, you can enter a reason for the
investment.
C. Environmental protection indicator. Here you can enter a measure taken to comply with
environmental
protection laws.
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.20 Tax calculation by system are usually posted via separate line item to a special tax
account in standard
scenario
A. true
B. falsh
Answer: A

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NO.21 The number of the G/L account to be charged can be automatically suggested by the
system provided
that automatic account determination has been defined for company code.
A. false
B. true
Answer: A

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NO.22 Identify the features of a Business Blueprint from the following list: (There are more
than one correct
answer for this question)
A. Business process groups
B. Blueprint document
C. Associated items
D. Business groups
E. Business scenarios
F. Blueprint structure
Answer: A, B, C, E, F

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NO.23 If a closed year is subsequently released for posting, it can only be closed again once
the year-end
closing program has been re-run.
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.24 The master data section of ASSET CLASS consists with control data and default
values for the
administrative data in the asset master record
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A

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NO.25 The ______ determines the depreciation start date of the asset. This date is determined
for each
depreciation are by the period control method of the depreciation key.
A. asset value date
Answer: A

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NO.26 By the period control method of the depreciation key, the asset value date is
determined for each
depreciation area.
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.27 The transfer from the under-construction phase to completed asset is referred to here
as ______.
A. capitalization of the asset under construction
Answer: A

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NO.28 What does the monitor provide? (4)
(Note: we can have more than one correct sentence. Please select the sentences you think
they are
correct)
A. The access to messages and result lists.
B. The visualization of both entire technical and business information.
C. The opportunity to postpone someone's tasks.
D. The opportunity to view the work of colleagues and the processing sequence, as well as
the technical
and business status of every task.
E. The ability to monitor the total progress of period-end closing when the user uses more
than one task
list.
Answer: A, B, D, E

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NO.29 [FI-Master Data] Field Status group control:
A. The GL account group.
B. The fields for data entry screens.
C. The number ranger.
D. The account type.
Answer: B

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NO.30 What are the depreciation terms that are mainly used as additional parameters in the
cost-accounting
depreciation area?
A. scrap value
B. index
C. variable depreciation portion
Answer: A, B, C

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Code d'Examen: C-TSCM42-64
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Production - Planning & Manufacturing with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 The company that you advise does not want to manage certain value-intensive materials in
the warehouse stock. Instead, the user wishes to control material provision in such a way that these
materials are procured directly for the production and/or process order. How can you fulfill this
request? (Choose two.)
A. Using the special procurement key subcontracting in the material master for the component
B. Using the special procurement key direct procurement/external procurement in the material
master for the component
C. Using the item type non-stock item in the bill of material for the material in question
D. Using the procurement type external procurement in the material master for the component
E. Controlling the material in question as a co-product
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 The user you advise requests that you make it possible for the user to produce materials for
stock,for customer orders, projects, orders and cost centers with production orders.
Where can you make settings to ensure these options?
A. Serial number profile.
B. Settlement profile.
C. Valuation variant.
D. Production scheduling profile.
Answer: B

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NO.3 An enterprise based in the USA produces an end product that is used with the unit of
measure"pound" (LB). The material is now to be marketed in the EU. A prerequisite for this is that
the material can be sold with the unit kilogram (KG).
Which of the following solutions does SAP ECC offer?
A. In the basic data customizing, you create a unit of measure group that converts pounds to
kilograms. You then assign this to the material master on basic data view 1.
B. You create a new material with a reference to the original material and assign the metric unit of
measure to the new material master.
C. In the material master, you create a conversion factor for converting pounds to kilograms on
basic data view 1.
D. There is no need to take any action. There is a general conversion in the central customizing of
units of measurements, so that automatic conversion of pounds to kilograms takes place.
Answer: D

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NO.4 The master data for an in-house production process is to be set up in the SAP ECC system. To
do this, you should create a suitable routing that plans for five operations in an initial sequence
(10,20, 30, 40, 50). There should be an option of relocating operations 30 and 40 to a second
sequence on other work centers if there are capacity bottlenecks. What sequence type would you
use to create the second sequence in the system?
A. Substitute sequence
B. Alternative sequence
C. Parallel sequence
D. Standard sequence
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following activities is necessary for the capacity availability check to be carried
out automatically when a production order is released?
A. Activate the availability check and assign a checking rule to the work center for the operation to
be checked.
B. Activate the availability check and assign the check control to the plant.
C. Activate the availability check and assign an overall profile in check control for the business
function order release.
D. Activate the availability check and assign an availability checking group to the material master
for the product to be produced.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A customer has been using planning strategies 30 (production by lots) and 10 (anonymous
maketo-stock production) in SAP ECC. The customer wishes to move in part to planning strategy 40
(planning with final assembly). The issue of consumption has an effect here for the first time.
Which properties apply for consumption with planning strategy 40? (Choose two.)
A. Consumption can lead to an increase of the originally planned overall production quantity.
B. Consumption can result in the subsequent specification and adjustment of planning elements in
terms of quantity and date, by means of customer orders that arrive.
C. Consumption can reduce the originally planned production quantity.
D. Consumption creates a static and binding assignment, between the planned independent
requirements recorded in advance and the customer requirements that arrive, for the entire
procurement process.
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 Which of the following requirements for a manufacturing plant can be supported by using
process
manufacturing? (Choose three.)
A. Master recipe-based manufacturing.
B. Material requirements planning for production resources.
C. Manufacturing without orders.
D. Variable calculation of material quantities (product output, material usage).
E. Manufacturing in charge quantities.
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.8 Which one of the following scheduling types cannot be assigned as default to an order type
(production order)?
A. Midpoint
B. Forward
C. Only capacity requirements
D. Backward
Answer: A

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NO.9 In the SAP ECC system, a material is produced with the help of production orders. Though
originally used for rate-based planning only, the planning table is to be used to plan this material.
On the initial screen of the planning table, you select this material and then receive a message
informing you that you cannot use the planning table for this material.
Which one of the following reasons for this message applies?
A. The series production indicator has not been set.
B. There is no valid production version for this material.
C. There are no planned orders or production orders present.
D. There are no requirements present.
Answer: B

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NO.10 In your company planning strategies are used in the SAP-ECC demand management that are
based on consumption. Which of the following statements about consumption is true? (Choose
two.)
A. A consumption situation is dynamic and is always restructured with the planning run.
B. Consumption can also take place between order reservations and planned independent
requirements, depending on the strategy.
C. Consumption always takes place on the material level between the planned independent
requirements and the planned orders.
D. The consumption parameters (consumption mode and consumption interval) can be set in the
material master or in the MRP group.
Answer: B,D

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Nom d'Examen: SAP (Business Planning and Consolidation with SAP BPC 7.0)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 What value is used in the destination flow column of the currency conversion business
rule when there
is no subtable type dimension in the Application?
A. Same as in the destination account column
B. Same as in the source account rate type column
C. Same as in the source flow column
D. Same as in the formula column
Answer: C

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NO.2 How do you control inserting records into the database in BPC?
A. Via Work Status
B. Via Business Rules
C. Via Distributor and Collector
D. Via Audit
Answer: A

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NO.3 For which scenario is it impossible to use the work status?
A. To allow or disallow a user to modify data
B. To lock a region of data in an Application
C. To lock a step in a Business Process Flow
D. To track the status of a planning process
Answer: C

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NO.4 What tasks are accomplished during full optimization in BPC for NetWeaver?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Creating a copy of the MultiProvider for the BPC Application
B. Closing the open request after posting 50,000 records
C. Updating DB statistics for the InfoCube
D. Compressing and indexing the InfoCube
E. Executing a data model analysis and alerting if the data model can be improved
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 What tasks can be done using the Web Administration?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Changing documents type but not document subtype
B. Activating but not deactivating auditing
C. Adjusting the version number of a report template
D. Setting up file types
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 What fields are required to eliminate the investment when using the 'All Formula'?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Source Account
B. Destination Group Account
C. Destination Equity Account
D. Destination Minority Interest
E. Destination All Account
Answer: A,E

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NO.7 What settings do you need for Source Account to calculate the liability account 'annual
net income'
(ANI)?
A. Expense, Destination Account = Revenue and ANI, do not reverse sign
B. Revenue and Cost, Destination Account = ANI, do not reverse sign
C. Revenue and Cost, Destination Account = ANI, reverse sign
D. Expense, Destination Account = Revenue and ANI, reverse sign
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the consequence in BPC for NetWeaver when updating the web admin
parameters without
entering the required parameters?
A. Warnings
B. Nothing
C. Crashes
D. Errors
Answer: B

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NO.9 Who is notified when a step is completed using Business Process Flow?
A. BPF User
B. BPF Manager
C. BPF Owner
D. BPF Reviewer
Answer: C

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NO.10 Where do you set the data audit to capture transactional data changes?
A. At Appset level in Admin Console
B. At Appset level in Web Admin
C. At Application level in Admin Console
D. At Application level in Web Admin
Answer: D

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NO.11 What actions are possible with work status?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Using it only with entity and time type dimensions
B. Bypassing it while executing a data management package
C. Linking it to multiple hierarchies for an Application
D. Launching it from the content library
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 Which step is required to store a comment to a filled cell in an Excel pop-up in BPC for
NetWeaver.?
A. Save the Excel workbook locally.
B. Enable comments in the Application parameters.
C. Assign a keyword.
D. Enable comments in the Application Set parameters.
Answer: B

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NO.13 For which dimension can you activate a data audit trail for an Application?
A. Category
B. Account
C. Time
D. Entity
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is a restriction for BPC validation rules in BPC for NetWeaver?
A. A BPC validation rule cannot use a BAdI implementation.
B. Multiple BPC validation rules cannot be applied to multiple dimension members of a
dimension.
C. Multiple BPC validation rules cannot refer to the same dimension member.
D. A BPC validation rule cannot refer to multiple driver dimensions.
Answer: D

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NO.15 What interfaces can you use during the step Define Action when setting up a BPF?
A. Manage Books, BPC Web, BPC for Word
B. BPC Administration, BPC for Excel, BPC for Word
C. Data Audit, BPC for Excel, BPC for PowerPoint
D. Journal, BPC for Excel, BPC for Word
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: C_TFIN52_66
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Financial Accounting with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP6)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following accounts are updated directly?
A. Accounts in the group chart of accounts
B. Accounts in the operating chart of accounts
C. Accounts in the master chart of accounts
D. Accounts in the country chart of accounts
Answer: B

SAP   C_TFIN52_66   C_TFIN52_66   C_TFIN52_66   C_TFIN52_66

NO.2 You have two house banks. Each house bank has three bank accounts.
How many separate G/L accounts do you recommend the customer creates in the chart of
accounts?
A. Six – one for each combination of house bank and bank account
B. One for all postings
C. Two – one for each house bank
D. Three – one for each bank account
Answer: A

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NO.3 Your company currently uses internal number ranges for documents. You are rolling out your
system in a new country. It is a legal requirement in this country to have external document
numbering on vendor invoices (currently document type KR). You have copied the number ranges
from the existing company code to the new company code.
Which Customizing settings do you have to make to meet this requirement and have a minimal
effect on the existing system configuration?
A. Mark a new document number range as external and assign it to the document type KR.
B. Create a new external document type and assign the number range 51 to the new document
type.
C. Create a new document type and a new external number range interval as external. Assign the
new number range to the new document type.
D. Mark existing number range interval 51 as external for the new company code.
Answer: D

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NO.4 To which of the following does an asset class apply?
A. To all company codes in a controlling area
B. To all company codes in an instance (client-independent)
C. To all company codes in a client
D. To all company codes within a client, which share the same chart of accounts
Answer: C

SAP   C_TFIN52_66   C_TFIN52_66

NO.5 Which of the following task types are supported by the Closing Cockpit or Schedule Manager?
(Choose three)
A. Spreadsheets
B. Transactions
C. Reconciliation keys
D. Notes (as a reminder or milestone)
E. Programs with or without variant
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.6 For reports in Asset Accounting, which object do you have to use and, where necessary,
customize to determine the sort level and/or the summation level?
A. Depreciation area
B. Sort key
C. Sort variant
D. Valuation area
Answer: C

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NO.7 In your leading ledger (ledger solution), balance sheets must be created for company codes
and
segments.
Which Customizing settings do you need to make? (Choose two)
A. Define a retained earnings account.
B. Define two retained earnings accounts and assign them to your P&L accounts.
C. Assign the Segment Reporting scenario to your leading ledger.
D. Activate cost of sales accounting.
Answer: A,C

SAP   C_TFIN52_66   C_TFIN52_66 examen

NO.8 What are the prerequisites for setting up cross-company-code cost accounting? (Choose two)
A. The same fiscal year variant is used for all company codes.
B. The same currency is used for all company codes.
C. The same variant for open periods is used for all company codes.
D. The same chart of accounts is used for all company codes.
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 You post a G/L document. For the Text field, the field status of the posting key is set to
Required
Entry and the field status of the G/L account is set to Hidden Entry?
What happens during posting?
A. The document is posted.
B. A warning message is shown.
C. An error message is shown.
D. The Text field is hidden.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which line item field is filled automatically by the sort key field of a master record (G/L
account,
customer, or vendor)?
A. Item text
B. Assignment
C. Amount in document currency
D. Number of the invoice to which the transaction belongs
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: C_TAW12_71
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certfied Development Associate - ABAP with SAP NetWeaver 7.02)
Questions et réponses: 79 Q&As

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NO.1 When is the authorization of user checked for entering data.
A. When entered.
B. At selection screen
C. At selection screen Output
D. End of page.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Size of Integer.
A. 8 bytes
B. 6 bytes
C. 4 bytes
D. Assigns as you declare the value.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is defined in ABAP Dictionary. (3 answer)
A. Type tools.
B. Transparent tables.
C. Domains.
D. Internal tables
E. Methods
Answer: ABC

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NO.4 In a table, when buffering settings are switched on and buffering style is single,What would
be the option .
A. SELECT SINGLE.
B. SELECT SINGLE...... UPDATE
C. SELECT... LOOP
D. One more option
Answer: A

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NO.5 What are the components of ABAP Workbench.(3 answer)
A. Function builder.
B. Class Builder
C. Screen Painter
D. Two more options.
Answer: ABC

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NO.6 There are two classes CL_SUPER and CL_SUB. Class CL_SUPER has method say
SUPER_METHOD and CL_SUB has a method SUB_METHOD.[This q gave me confidence and put me
into confusion!!....what is wrong (TRICKY thing is they dint mention CL_SUB is inherited from
CL_SUPER )].
DATA: GO_SUPER type ref to CL_SUPER,
GO_SUB type ref to CL_SUB.
A. GO_SUPER->SUPER_METHOD.
B. GO_SUPER->SUB_METHOD.(i CHOSE THIS BUT PLEASE READ THE QWELL)
C. GO_SUB->SUB_METHOD.
D. GO_SUB->SUPER_METHOD.
Answer: A

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NO.7 When you press Double_Click, What will happen.
A. Handler class.
B. Handler method.
C. event handler class method triggers
D. 2 more options.
Answer: C

SAP   C_TAW12_71   C_TAW12_71   C_TAW12_71 examen

NO.8 Which of the following part of SAP business suite. (3 Answers)
A. SAP Design By one
B. SAP Design All
C. Product life cycle management
D. ERP
E. CRM
Answer: CDE

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NO.9 What are the parameters of Functional method. (2 answer)
A. Importing
B. Exporting
C. Changing
D. Returning
E. Transporting
Answer: AD

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NO.10 What you can do in class builder.
A. Local class and Local interface from your local program.
B. Redefine classes and interfaces.
C. When you can define global class, you can use in F8 Function.
Answer: ABC

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Code d'Examen: 200-047
Nom d'Examen: Isilon (Isilon Certified Integration Engineer Exam for OneFS 6.5)
Questions et réponses: 89 Q&As

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NO.1 Which node should be assigned the SmartConnect Service IP address?
A. The node with the lowest LNN
B. Only nodes servicing SMB clients
C. All nodes can use the SmartConnect Service IP
D. Only nodes servicing NFS clients
E. None
Answer: E

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NO.2 In what directory are cluster logs stored?
A. /var/log
B. /ifs
C. /ifs/log$
D. /var/.ifsvar
Answer: A

Isilon examen   200-047   200-047 examen

NO.3 How many NAS heads can an Isilon cluster support?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. None. Isilon cluster do not use NAS heads.
Answer: D

Isilon examen   200-047 examen   200-047 examen

NO.4 Select the standard ACL policies options? (Choose 4)
A. SMB only
B. UNIX only
C. Balanced
D. NFS only
E. Windows Only
F. Manual Configuration
Answer: B,C,E,F

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NO.5 A customer would like a new Isilon cluster. There are two requirements, which are long term storage for
data files and video files that need to be edited. What two node types best serve these needs? (Choose 2)
A. S200
B. S400
C. X400
D. NL400
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 Which of the following is the Active Directory domain identifier used by an Isilon cluster when allocating
SIDs?
A. I-1-144-1
B. I-1-20-2
C. S-1-22-1
D. S-1-20-2
Answer: C

Isilon examen   certification 200-047   200-047

NO.7 What does Isilon s single file system in an Isilon cluster eliminate? (Choose 3)
A. A unified namespace
B. RAID
C. Volumes
D. Multiple local file systems
E. Ease of management
Answer: B,C,D

Isilon   200-047   200-047 examen   200-047

NO.8 A customer needs to prevent accidental deletion or alteration of critical or archived data. They have
used a WORM storage setup in the past, but are not required to be WORM compliant. What Isilon license
would enable them to have this type of feature?
A. SmartConnect
B. SmartLock
C. SmartSecure
D. SmartCache
Answer: B

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NO.9 How many Accelerator nodes are recommended per NL node in a cluster?
A. 4 NL nodes for the first Accelerator and 3 NL nodes for each additional accelerator
B. 3 NL nodes for the first Accelerator and 3 NL nodes for each additional accelerator
C. 5 NL nodes for the first Accelerator and 3 NL nodes for each additional accelerator
D. 4 NL nodes for the first Accelerator and 4 NL nodes for each additional accelerator
E. 3 NL nodes for the first Accelerator and 4 NL nodes for each additional accelerator
Answer: A

Isilon   200-047   200-047 examen   200-047 examen

NO.10 When a file is saved to an Isilon cluster, which node creates the data and parity stripes?
A. The stripes are assigned to two separate nodes for calculation.
B. The node connected to the client.
C. The node with the least amount of read / write activity.
D. All nodes use Round Robin to take turns calculating the stripes.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Legacy LDAP does not allow what action on passwords.?
A. Encryption of passwords
B. Unencrypted passwords
C. Transfer of passwords to windows clients
D. Reading of passwords by windows clients
Answer: A

Isilon   200-047   200-047 examen   200-047   200-047

NO.12 What does the on-disk identity type supports both UNIX and Windows clients?
A. CIFS
B. Native
C. Compatible
D. Each on-disk identity supports only one type of client
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following client access protocols are enabled by default on OneFS 6.0 and 6.5?
A. NFS, CIFS & FTP
B. CIFS, FTP & HTTP
C. SMB & NFS
D. NFS, SMB, FTP & HTTP
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following is supported by NFSv4 on an Isilon cluster? (Choose 3)
A. Oplocks
B. State
C. Windows ACLs
D. TCP
E. UDP
F. NLM
G. Byte range locks
Answer: B,C,D

certification Isilon   200-047   certification 200-047   200-047

NO.15 Which of the following are required to support InsightIQ 2.0? (Choose 2)
A. Product license
B. SMB connectivity
C. File System Analytics
D. Virtualized environment
E. NFS connectivity
Answer: A,D

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Avaya 132-S-712.2 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 132-S-712.2
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Specialist: Avaya Proactive Contact Solutions Design Elective Exam)
Questions et réponses: 62 Q&As

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NO.1 Your customer runs a collections call center. When an inbound call comes in, your customer wants be
able to keep the customer from being called back on the outbound jobs if payment was received on the
inbound call. Which feature automatically marks records as uncallable on outbound jobs if the agent uses
a code indicating an inbound call resulted in a payment from the customer?
A.Do Not Call
B.Sales Verification
C.Generic Postupdate
D.Realtime Campaign Update
Answer:D

Avaya   132-S-712.2   certification 132-S-712.2   certification 132-S-712.2

NO.2 Your customer has difficulty sorting through their current system's reports to give supervisors
information that pertains only to their particular group. Which feature should in Avaya Proactive Contact
meets the customer's need?
A.Shared Lists
B.Unit Work List
C.List Distribution
D.Hierarchy Manager
Answer:D

certification Avaya   132-S-712.2 examen   132-S-712.2

NO.3 Your customer has a group of agents that handle clerical and other duties and who handle calls only
when needed. A supervisor notifies these agents when they need to answer calls because calls are
queueing or being abandoned. However, the response is often too late to be of much help and the result
is many abandoned calls. Which Avaya Proactive Contact feature meets this customer's needs?
A.Virtual Agent
B.Person to Person
C.Intelligent Call Blending
D.Native Voice & Data Transfer
Answer:B

Avaya   132-S-712.2   132-S-712.2 examen   132-S-712.2   132-S-712.2

NO.4 Which tool is new to the Editor Application in the Avaya Proactive Contact Supervisor software?
A.verification of jobs
B.record selection reports
C.messages files and scripts
D.IVR fields in record selections
Answer:C

Avaya   132-S-712.2   certification 132-S-712.2   132-S-712.2   132-S-712.2

NO.5 You are using the Avaya Solution Designer. What is the correct input on the ACD line on the Predictive
Agent Blend software screen for an Avaya Proactive Contact System using Predictive Agent Blending
with one ACD?
A.leave line blank
B.type in the number 1
C.leave line at the default (0)
D.type in the ACD brand name
Answer:C

Avaya examen   132-S-712.2   132-S-712.2   132-S-712.2

NO.6 What is Update Time?
A.the time period that begins when the agent greets the customer and ends when the customer hangs up
B.the time period that begins when the customer hangs up and ends when the agent releases the
customer record
C.the time period that begins when the agent releases the customer record and ends when the agent
receives the next call
D.the time period that begins when the customer first tells the agent pertinent information and the agent
records it and ends when the agent releases the record
Answer:B

Avaya examen   132-S-712.2   132-S-712.2   certification 132-S-712.2

NO.7 The Avaya Proactive Contact access server provides which two functions within the system? (Choose
two.)
A.connects calls to agents
B.manages the internal LAN
C.serves as a dial-in point for access to the digital switch and CPU
D.is the interface that supervisors and agents use on their computers
Answer:B C

Avaya   132-S-712.2   132-S-712.2   132-S-712.2

NO.8 Which feature meets the needs of customers who want to run jobs that play messages to both phones
answered by live customers and phones answered by answering machines?
A.Autowrap
B.Virtual Agent
C.Agent Blending
D.Managed Dialing
Answer:B

Avaya examen   certification 132-S-712.2   132-S-712.2   132-S-712.2

NO.9 When using the Avaya Solution Designer tool, the License Quantity for Agent Connections should be
equal to the total number of _____.
A.agents in a typical shift
B.simultaneous headset connections
C.inbound lines purchased by the customer
D.outbound lines purchased by the customer
Answer:B

Avaya   certification 132-S-712.2   132-S-712.2   132-S-712.2

NO.10 Which two telemarketing situations would merit greater than a 2:1 line to agent ratio? (Choose two.)
A.using unconfirmed contact data
B.using one of the call blending solutions
C.using unsolicited calling lists (cold calling individuals)
D.calling customers with multiple contact numbers (home, business, etc.)
Answer:A C

Avaya   132-S-712.2   132-S-712.2   certification 132-S-712.2

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Avaya 132-S-720.1, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: 132-S-720.1
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Specialist Call Center Implement and Support Elective Exam)
Questions et réponses: 128 Q&As

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NO.1 Your customer is migrating their call center from basic ACD to EAS.
After the EAS feature has been licensed on the system, what are three tasks that must be completed to
facilitate the EAS conversion? (Choose three.)
A. EAS must be optioned on the Feature Related System Parameters form.
B. The CMS (if present) switch administration for the ACO must be changed to support EAS.
C. Queue Status Indicators must be re-administered.
D. Agent work mode buttons on voice terminals must be modified.
E. Administer hunt groups for Redirect on No Answer (RONA).
Answer: A, B, D

certification Avaya   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1 examen

NO.2 For a High Availabihty CMS design supporting 4 ACDs with the CMS servers co-located with a local
ACD, the customer should have available which of the following Ethernet switch port configurations to
support the installation?
A. 2 Ethernet switch ports at each remote Communication Manager location I Ethernet switch port for
each Communication Manager co-located with a CMS server. 1 Ethernet switch port for each CMS server
B. 1 Ethernet switch port for each Communication Manager and 2 Ethernet switch ports for the Primary
and Secondary CMS servers.
C. 2 Ethernet swich ports at each remote Communication Manager location. 1 Ethernet switch port for
each Communication Manager co-located with a CMS server. 2 Ethernet switch ports for each CIViS
server.
D. 2 Ethernet switch ports at each Communication Manager location and 2 Ethernet switch ports for each
CMS server (Primary and Seconday)
Answer: D

Avaya   132-S-720.1 examen   132-S-720.1 examen   132-S-720.1 examen

NO.3 A customer wants to know the definition of the Average ACD Time on the Historical Split Skill Summary
Interval Report. Which documentation would you reference in order to obtain this information?
A. Avaya Call Management System Supervisor Release 14 Reports
B. Avaya CMS Supervisor Release 14 Report Designer
C. Avaya CMS Capacities
D. Avaya Call Management System Release 14 Administration
Answer: A

certification Avaya   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1

NO.4 Your customer is implementing Application Enablement Services for a TSAPI application. What
represents the recommended TCPI1P connectMty for AE Services?
A. AE Services etho and AE Services ethi both connect to the local LAN.
B. AE Services etho connects to a dedicated CLAN, AE Services ethi connects to a second dedicated
CLAN. ME Services eth2 connects to the local LAN.
C. AE Services etho connects to the customer application server1 ME Services ethi connects to a
dedicated CLAN.
D. AE Services etho connects to a private LANfV1..AN for the transport links to Communication Manager,
AE Services ethi connects to the customers LAN.
Answer: D

Avaya   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1 examen   132-S-720.1

NO.5 For single site call centers where Call Management System (CMS) data is critical to their business,
which two benefits does the CMS provide for minimum data loss? (Choose two.)
A. disk mirroring
B. Survivable CMS
C. high availability CMS
D. duplicated processors
Answer: A, C

Avaya examen   132-S-720.1   certification 132-S-720.1   certification 132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1 examen

NO.6 Your customer wants the ability to automatically notity Avaya Call Management System (CMS)
Supervisors when there are excessive calls in queue to be answered. A possible solution is to implement
the Communication and Solution Integration CMS Supervisor Threshold Paging Package
Which condition must be met for the CMS Supervisor Threshold Paging Package to work?
A. The CMS must have access to the public network.
B. The agent must have remote text messaging capabilities
C. The supervisor must has a CMS login ID
D. The refresh rate for checking the users thresholds can be changed.
Answer: A

Avaya   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1 examen

NO.7 Your customer has commissioned agents who take both service related calls as well as sales
opportunity calls The agents receive a commission on all sales. Which Business Advocate feature would
assure that agents are provided equal opportunity to take sales related calls?
A. Service Objective
B. Percentage Allocation Distribution
C. Service Level Supervisor
D. Reserve Agent
Answer: B

Avaya   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1

NO.8 Your customer is reporting that after hours callers are being disconnected. Recently they changed the
out-of-hours vector from routing to an internal voice mailbox to an off site answering service using a
route-to digits step
What is happening?
A. Dial ahead digits are being discarded
B. In the associated vector, coverage on route-to digits step was set to no.
C. In the associated vector, coverage on route-to digits step was set to °yee
D. Class of Restriction on associated VON has too low of an FRL to allow outcalling
Answer: D

Avaya   certification 132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1

NO.9 You are working an intermittent issue with Avaya IP Agent R6 and have enabled Event Logging on the
end-users computer to capture log files. You need to instruct the end-user how to insert an event mark in
the log when the problem occurs.
Which keyboard combination do you have the end-user press to mark the event?
A. Alt + M
B. Alt + E
C. Ctrl + E
D. CtrI+M
Answer: C

Avaya   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1 examen

NO.10 Your customer must be able to confirm that clients have input valid credit card numbers.
As a backup to using a custom CTI application, which vector variable should be used to validate account
numbers?
A. DIV
B. SEL
C. CATR
D. MOD1O
Answer: D

certification Avaya   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   certification 132-S-720.1

NO.11 Your customer wants to periodically adjust agent skill assignments and preferences automatically
(without human intervention) based on real-time agent sales results in their CRM application.
Which solution would satisfy the requirement?
A. Implement a custom CTI application which will change the agent skills.
B. Pursue a custom application through Avaya CSI
C. Use Avaya Site Administration Scheduling.
D. Use CMS Supervisor scripting.
Answer: B

Avaya   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1

NO.12 Your customer is implementing a non-AVAYA CI/LAN application in conjunction with Communication
Manager (CM) 4 0 What is the minimum software licensing required on Communication Manager and AE
Services?
A. ASAI Core on CM and TSAPI Basic and Ad ¯i anced on AE Se r M ces
B. ASAI Core on CM and CvtAN on AE Ser ¯.i ces
C. ASAI Core, ASAI Plus and Cli Stations on CM and CVLAN on AE Services
D. CTI Propnetary Adjunct inks on CM and CVL.AN on AE Services
Answer: B

certification Avaya   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1 examen   132-S-720.1

NO.13 Your client needs to address agent morale issues thin their call center. These issues are tied to those
agents who staff a higher number of skills resulting in more time spent on ACO calls (also known as hot
seats ¯).
Which Avaya capability should be used to help eliminate ® ho t sea t ¡¯ in a c a ll ce nter
A. Auto-Reserve Agents
B. Least Occupied Agent (LOA)
C. Expert Agent Selection (EAS)
D. Percent Allocation Distribution (PAD)
Answer: B

Avaya   132-S-720.1 examen   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1 examen

NO.14 You ask the Avaya Call Management System (CMS) administrator to increase the measured trunks.
Since the administrator has not changed parameters before, CMS administration documentation must be
accessed. Which three sections are needed to change parameters? (Choose three.)
A. Free Space Allocation
B. Data Storage Allocation
C. Trunk Group assignment
D. Data Collection
E. Disk Allocation
Answer: A, B, D

certification Avaya   certification 132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1 examen   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1

NO.15 You are a team member assigned on a project to install a new Avaya S87XX Media Server and a new
Avaya Call Management System (CMS). Who is responsible for identifying what equipment has arrived at
the customers site?
A. the field technician
B. the client executive
C. the program manager
D. the remote field engineer (RFE)
Answer: A

Avaya   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1

NO.16 Your customer has basic reporting requirements that include agent level skill reporting for 12
simultaneous supervisors accessing real-time information using PCs over their Local Area Network. What
is the most cost effective reporting offer that meets these requirements?
A. BCMR Desktop
B. BCMS
C. CMS
D. Operational Analyst
Answer: C

certification Avaya   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1 examen   certification 132-S-720.1

NO.17 The events table provides a list of events, a brief description that displays on the screen for the event,
and a full explanation of the event. In what document can this table be found?
A. Feature Description and Implementation for Avaya Communication Manager
B. Administrator Guide for Avaya Communication Manager
C. ACD Guide for Avaya Communication Manager
D. Avaya Call Center Release 4.0 Call Vectoring and Expert Agent Selection (EAS) Guide
Answer: D

Avaya   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1 examen   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1

NO.18 Your customer is implementing third-party data directed routing
Which three ctor steps would cause an adjunct routing request to be terminated? (Choose three.)
A. check split
B. wait
C. queue
D. go to step
E. converse on split
Answer: A, C, E

Avaya examen   certification 132-S-720.1   certification 132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1 examen   132-S-720.1

NO.19 The field service technician is responsible for which two tasks? (Choose two )
A. onsite equipment inventorV
B. application of powerto onsrte equipment
C. obtaining necessary TCP/ IP addresses
D. ensunng the equipment room is ready for installation
Answer: A, B

Avaya   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1

NO.20 When turning on the CMS application an installation engineer receives the message shown:
®C heck i ng t he S ys t e m Tunab l es f o r CM S va l ues m d : m irr o r ed_ r oo t _ fl ag MUST be se t t o 1 CM S canno t r un
without correct tunable values. Error occurred while processing request..... see
/cmsfinstallllogdir/admin.log for detaiIs ¯
Which file will require amending to resolve this problem?
A. /etcftunables
B. /etc/system
C. /cms/insta llftunables
D. /etc/defaultlmirror
Answer: B

Avaya examen   132-S-720.1 examen   132-S-720.1 examen   certification 132-S-720.1

NO.21 Which three statements descnbe the correct use of the asaiuui vector vanable when communicating
with an adjunct computer telephony integration application? (Choose three.)
A. Valid lengths of the asaiuui vector variable range from 1 to 24 digits
B. The asaiuu, vector variable allows the adjunct CTI application to set a variable for use in vector
processing
C. A common use for the asaiuui variable in a vector step is to test the assigned value against a threshold
value.
D. The scope of the asaiuui variables is only local
E. Once a value is assigned, it cannot be modified or changed byrne adjunct
Answer: B, C, D

Avaya examen   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1

NO.22 Your customer would like to be able to collect call center data when the enterprise fragments using a
remote gateway. Since this is a small location, an LSP was installed to support the users Which system
would allow the customer to collect and then add data back to the main Call Management System (CMS)?
A. HACMS
B. Primary CMS
C. BCMR-D
D. Survivable CMS
Answer: D

Avaya   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1

NO.23 You have just installed Avaya P Agent R-6 on the computers for all 150 agents. All of the computers can
ping the Communication Manager (CM), but only 100 of the agents can log into their lP Agent station.
What is the cause of this issue?
A. The ®M ax i m u m C oncu rr en tl y R eg i s t e r ed I P S t a ti on¡¯ f ield o n t h ¡ ® s ys -parameters customer-options ¯
screen is set to 100.
B. The ® I P S t a ti on¡¯ f ield o n t h ¡ ® s ys -parameters customer-options ¯ sc r een i s se t t o¡ n
C. The ®M u lti m ed i a M od ¡¯ f ield o n t h ¡ ® chan ge s tat o n ¡ ¯ fo r m i s s et t o ¡ ® E nh n c
D. The ®Phone Fea t u r e¡¯ w i nd o w o n t h ¡® S tat ion A dm i n istrat io n f o r m nee d s t o be s e t o ¡® -In ¯.
Answer: A

certification Avaya   certification 132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1 examen   132-S-720.1 examen

NO.24 Which of the following is not a valid connecbvity test available using the Applications Enablement
Services Utilities menu available from OAM?
A. TSAPI Test
B. Ping Host
C. ASAI Test
D. Traceroute
Answer: D

Avaya examen   132-S-720.1 examen   132-S-720.1 examen

NO.25 A customer wishes to allocate the subnet 255.255252.0 to the ® cus t o m e r LAN ne t w o r k i n t e rf ac ¡¯ o n t h
CMS. Which file must be amended to ensure that this net mask is correctly allocated when the CMS
system is rebooted?
A. /etc!subnet
B. /etc/netmasks
C. /etcfnetworks
D. /etcfhosts
Answer: B

Avaya   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   certification 132-S-720.1

NO.26 Your customer is implementing an AE Services 4 0 and has purchased the software only solution.
What hardware and software must the customer provide?
A. server hardware platform and Red Hat Enterprise Edition 3
B. server hardware platform and Red Hat Enterprise Edition 4
C. server hardware platform, Red Hat Enterprise Edition , and all third-party software required for AE
D. Services server hardware platform, Red Hat Enterprise Edition 3. and all third-party software required
for AE Services
Answer: B

Avaya examen   certification 132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1 examen

NO.27 A customer adding a second ACD to an existing Avaya Call Management System (CMS). The
customer also wants to add External Call History (ECH) capablrties and Network Printing Interfaces
(NWF), The MuIti-Ste Routing Interface supports one 1CM Penpheral Gateway (PG) and DNS services.
Which implementation affects service to the CMS?
A. adding 1WP
B. adding DNS services
C. adding Multi-Site Routing
D. adding ECH
Answer: D

Avaya examen   132-S-720.1 examen   132-S-720.1

NO.28 You have just received a call from a customer that agent 6024 is no longer receiving calls for skill 6.
The customer informs you that the agent was receiving calls yesterday for this skill. You display the agent
login ID and inform the customer that skill 6 is no longer assigned in the agents profile. The customer
wants to know when the agents profile was changed. Keep in mind that changes to agent profiles for this
customer can only be made through the Media Server,
Which command would you use to determine when a change was made to this agents profile?
A. display changes extension 6024
B. list history
C. display agent 6024
D. displayevents 6024
E. trace agents
Answer: B

Avaya   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1 examen

NO.29 Which file is responsible for setting up a default route on a CMS system?
A. /etc/hosts
B. /etc/router
C. /etc/deftultrouter
D. /etc/netstat
Answer: C

Avaya   certification 132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1

NO.30 You have been assigned a project to add an ACD to an existing Avaya Call Management System (CMS).
The customer has requested that Avaya provide a turn-key implementation Which three resources will
you schedule? (Choose three)
A. Communication solutions integration - provisioning
B. Communicabon and Solution Integration (C&Sl)
C. software specialist
D. on-site technician
E. Network Integration Center (NIC)
Answer: A, B, D

certification Avaya   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1 examen

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