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2014年7月31日星期四

Dernières CompTIA JK0-019 CAS-001 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: JK0-019
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam)
Questions et réponses: 637 Q&As

Code d'Examen: CAS-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner)
Questions et réponses: 349 Q&As

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NO.1 The Security Development Lifecycle (SDL) consists of various security practices that are grouped under
seven phases. Which of the following security practices are included in the Requirements phase.?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Incident Response Plan
B. Create Quality Gates/Bug Bars
C. Attack Surface Analysis/Reduction
D. Security and Privacy Risk Assessment
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 Which of the following terms is about communicating the user's need and ability to communicate, and
the medium through which that communication may occur?
A. Data sharing
B. Presence
C. Instant messaging
D. Audio conferencing
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following protocols is used extensively in communication and entertainment systems that
involve streaming media, such as telephony, video teleconference applications and web-based push to
talk features?
A. SIP
B. MGCP
C. H.323
D. RTP
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following security practices are included in the Implementation phase of the Security
Development Lifecycle (SDL)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Establish Design Requirements
B. Perform Static Analysis
C. Use Approved Tools
D. Execute Incident Response Plan
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 Which of the following components of a VoIP network is frequently used to bridge video conferencing
connections?
A. MCU
B. Videoconference station
C. IP Phone
D. Call agent
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following is an XML-based framework developed by OASIS and used to exchange user,
resource and service provisioning information between cooperating organizations?
A. SOAP
B. SAML
C. SPML
D. XACML
Answer: C

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NO.7 SDLC phases include a minimum set of security tasks that are required to effectively incorporate
security in the system development process. Which of the following are the key security activities for the
development/acquisition phase?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Prepare initial documents for system certification and accreditation
B. Conduct the risk assessment and use the results to supplement the baseline security controls
C. Determination of privacy requirements
D. Initial delineation of business requirements in terms of confidentiality, integrity, and availability
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 You need to ensure that a session key derived from a set of long-term public and private keys will not be
compromised if one of the private keys is compromised in the future?
A. Perfect forward secrecy
B. Secure socket layer
C. Secure shell
D. Security token
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: CLO-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Cloud Essentials Exam)
Questions et réponses: 182 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ADR-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Mobile App Security+ Certification Exam (Android Edition))
Questions et réponses: 102 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following does the server virtualization layer do?
A. It allows the underling physical server hardware to be shared
B. It allows the virtual machines to be dependent on each other
C. It allows the virtual machines to be load balanced
D. It prohibits the use of virtual machines by unauthorized users
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following is the primary way to access PaaS?
A. Web services
B. Websites
C. Web hosting providers
D. Data integrations
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following actions should a company take if a cloud computing provider ceases to uphold
their contract?
A. Consult the company's exit plan.
B. Move the company data to the backup provider that was selected earlier.
C. Re-host all critical applications on the company's internal servers.
D. Evaluate the company's strategic options for an alternative provider
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following is an important new skill for an IT organization to develop in the context of cloud
computing?
A. Provisioning services
B. Incident management
C. Technology upgrade monitoring
D. Security and risk management
Answer: A

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NO.5 Digital identities for logging onto SaaS solutions should be issued by all the following EXCEPT:
A. A third-party identity provider.
B. The customer organization.
C. The SaaS provider.
D. A user.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following is the MOST important service management consequence of elastic capacity?
A. The need for better application development
B. The need for better security management
C. The need for good performance monitoring and management
D. The need to improve the fulfillment and provisioning process
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following IT processes is likely to become more important due to the adoption of cloud
computing?
A. Capacity management
B. Troubleshooting management
C. Project management
D. Request fulfillment management
Answer: A

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NO.8 Why is it important to consider the cloud ecosystem when developing applications.?
A. Cloud providers will do application development.
B. The development process needs to change.
C. The role of the IT department will change.
D. This can speed up the development process.
Answer: D

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2014年7月17日星期四

CompTIA SG0-001 SGO-001, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: SG0-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Storage+ Powered by SNIA)
Questions et réponses: 537 Q&As

Code d'Examen: SGO-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Storage+ Powered by SNIA)
Questions et réponses: 537 Q&As

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NO.1 When setting up replication for application spanning multiple LUNs, which of the following
replication features should be utilized?
A. Clone
B. Snapshot
C. Semi-synchronous Replication
D. Consistency Group
Answer: D

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NO.2 In order to protect the storage area network, a new firewall has been installed at the
company's datacenter. Once installed, all servers lost the remote storage and crashed. Which of the
following will restore communication between the servers' network and the SAN?
A. UDP port 6320 must be permitted between the two networks.
B. TCP port 3260 must be permitted between the two networks.
C. All servers must be configured to use hardware iSCSI initiators.
D. All servers must rescan the LUNs which have been masked by the firewall
Answer: B

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NO.3 An administrator has configured storage for a server, and would like to ensure that other
systems do not accidentally gain access to this server's storage by plugging into the system's port.
Which of the following would provide a solution?
A. RCSN
B. Port zoning
C. Virtual fabric
D. WWN zoning
Answer: D

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NO.4 When deploying a LUN from a storage array to a host over a SAN, which of the following steps
must be done for the host to see the LUN? (Select TWO).
A. The switches must be zoned to allow the host to see the array
B. The host must authenticate against the array for SCSI access
C. The host must enable the Persistent Binding Function on its HBA
D. The switches must be zoned to allow the host to see the LUN
E. The array must be configured to expose the LUN to the host
Answer: A,E

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NO.5 Which of the following RAID levels will allow an administrator to lose only two drives within
the RAID group and not lose data?
A. RAID 1+0
B. RAID A
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 6
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following is the appropriate tool for an administrator to use to provide a file
system to a host with assigned storage LUNs?
A. LBA
B. LVM
C. VBA
D. FBA
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following replication types is the FASTEST?
A. Synchronous
B. Asynchronous
C. Incremental
D. Differential
Answer: A

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NO.8 A host-based logical volume manager is used to migrate data from an old array to a newer
one.
The storage administrator has completed the physical connections, zoning, and masking, but the
storage volumes from the new array are still not visible on the host. Which of die following steps
should be performed NEXT?
A. Change the HBA driver topology configuration
B. Replace failed HBA
C. Run fcping
D. Bus rescan
Answer: D

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2014年6月7日星期六

Pass4Test offre une formation sur CompTIA ISS-001 RF0-001 matériaux examen

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Code d'Examen: ISS-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (Intel Server Specialist Certification Exam)
Questions et réponses: 218 Q&As

Code d'Examen: RF0-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (RFID+ Certification)
Questions et réponses: 162 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is MOST likely to cause a stop error on a 5520 Chipset based Server Board?
A. CMOS checksum error
B. PCI bus error
C. Single drive failure in a RAID 1 set
D. Memory ECC single bit error
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following documents and tools would a technician use to help determine the correct parts
necessary to build an Intel server? (Select TWO).
A. Quick Start Guide
B. Configuration Guide
C. Intel Server Configurator Tool (SCT)
D. Product Change Notification (PCN)
E. Technical Product Specification (TPS)
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 The Intel Server Board S5520UR has two different headers through which front panel signals can be
routed. Which of the following documents would a server technician use to identify the pinout of each
header?
A. The Technical Product Specification
B. The Service Guide
C. The Quick Start Guide
D. The Spare Parts and Configuration Guide
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer calls and says that a server has suffered a stop error, and intermittently fails to boot. Which
of the following is the preferred FIRST step to take?
A. Connect to the SEL via the DPC CLI.
B. Ask the customer to return the server.
C. Ask the customer to reseat the memory.
D. Start a remote desktop session to the server.
E. Connect to the remote management module if present.
Answer: E

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NO.5 Which of the following items are stored in the SDR s? (Select TWO).
A. BMC remote access settings
B. Part number information
C. BMC Operational Code
D. Fan speed control settings
E. Voltage sensor thresholds
Answer: D,E

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NO.6 A customer has asked an Intel Server Specialist to provide them with a 1U, 2-socket server. The
customer has concerns about power consumption.
Which of the following configurations would offer the MOST energy efficient solution?
A. Intel Server System SR1695WB
B. Intel Server System SR1630HGP
C. Intel Server System SR1600URLX
D. Intel Server System SR2625URBRP
Answer: A

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NO.7 Below is a step in the server management configuration process. Which of the following is true about
this command.?
A. This SYSCFG command, Reset Factory Settings, can be used to erase all BMC management settings.
This command can be used to reset the management settings to support reconfiguration of management,
without carrying over previous management settings.
B. This SYSCFG command, Refreshes Sensors, resets the sensor values and forces the BMC to rescan
all sensors to update the Sensor Data Records (SDR). This is used when a system error has been
resolved, but the status remains critical in the SDR.
C. This SYSCFG command, Restore File System, is used to restore a backup of the server management
settings. This is an efficient method of restoring the BMC settings if they have been lost or deleted.
D. This DOS command allows a super user to replace the file system within the BMC, reformatting the
data area down to a low-level format prior to a system restore.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer is designing a security appliance, and has asked an Intel Server Specialist to supply them
with a 1-socket rack mount server with as many Gigabit Ethernet ports as possible.
Which of the following configurations would be the MOST appropriate to recommend?
A. Intel Server System SR1695GPRX, with Intel Quad Port Gigabit I/O module, and an Intel Gigabit
ET2 Server Adapter.
B. Intel Server System SR1630GP, with an Intel Quad Port Gigabit I/O module.
C. Intel Modular Server System, with additional Gigabit Ethernet mezzanine cards.
D. Intel Server System SR1625UR, with Intel Quad Port Gigabit I/O module, and an Intel PRO/1000
PT Server Adapter.
Answer: A

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JK0-U31 JK0-016 dernières questions d'examen certification CompTIA et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: JK0-U31
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA E2C Strata IT Technology Exam)
Questions et réponses: 276 Q&As

Code d'Examen: JK0-016
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Network+(2009 Edition) Exam)
Questions et réponses: 700 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following features are related to power management? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Hot plugging
B. Hibernate mode
C. Standby mode
D. Safe mode
Answer: B,C

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Explanation:
The Hibernate mode and Standby mode are features related to power management. Hibernate
mode is a power saving feature for computers. In hibernate mode, the current state of a computer
is saved to the hard disk, and the computer shuts down. A user will have to power on the computer
to restore the previous settings. When a computer resumes from hibernate mode, it reads the
saved settings from the disk and restores the system state as it was before it entered hibernate
mode. By default, hibernate mode is disabled. If a computer is not ACPI-enabled or APM-enabled,
users will have to enter hibernate mode manually. Users cannot set the computer to automatically
hibernate after a certain time. With ACPI-enabled and APM-enabled computers, users are able to
set hibernate mode automatically. The standby mode is a power saving feature for computers. In
this mode, a computer does not shut down completely. The computer goes to low power state and,
as a result, it consumes less power. When the computer resumes from the standby mode, full power
is restored to its devices. During the standby mode, if the power supply
is disconnected or interrupted, data might be
lost. The standby mode is available automatically on ACPI-enabled or APM-enabled computers.
Users do not need to enable this mode manually. This mode is not available in non-ACPI and
non-APM based computers. Answer option A is incorrect. Hot plugging is a feature in which a device
can be installed or removed while the computer is running. Answer option D is incorrect. Safe Mode
is a Windows feature used to start a computer with basic drivers, such as mouse, keyboard, etc. It
bypasses blocking issues, such as system corruption, or installation of incompatible drivers or
system services, enabling the Administrator to resolve such issues.

NO.2 Which of the following is an international standard for energy efficient consumer products?
A. Energy Star rating
B. Standby mode
C. Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC)
D. Advanced Configuration and Power Interface (ACPI)
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Energy Star rating is an international standard for energy efficient consumer products. The Energy
Star rating is an international standard for energy efficient consumer products. Devices carrying
the Energy Star logo are products, such as computer devices, peripherals, kitchen appliances, etc.
These products generally use 20% to 30% lesser energy than required by the federal standards. The
Energy Star program was created by the 'United
States Environmental Protection Agency' (US EPA) as an attempt to reduce energy consumption and
greenhouse gas emission by power plants. The program has helped in spreading the use of LED
traffic lights, efficient fluorescent lighting, and power management systems for office equipments.
Answer option C is incorrect. Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC), frequently
referred to as the Orange Book, is the centerpiece of the DoD Rainbow Series publications. It is a
United States Government Department of Defense (DoD) standard that sets basic requirements for
assessing the effectiveness of computer security controls built into a computer system. TCSEC was
used to evaluate, classify and select computer systems being considered for the processing, storage
and retrieval of sensitive or classified information.
It was replaced with the development of the Common Criteria international standard originally
published in 2005. Answer option B is incorrect. The standby mode is a power saving feature for
computers. In this mode, a computer does not shut down completely. The computer goes to low
power state and, as a result, it consumes less power. When the computer resumes from the standby
mode, full power is restored to its devices. During the standby mode, if the power supply is
disconnected or interrupted, data might be lost. The standby mode is available automatically on
ACPI-enabled or APM-enabled computers. Users do not need to enable this mode manually. This
mode is not available in non-ACPI and non-APM based computers. Answer option D is incorrect. The
Advanced Configuration and Power Interface (ACPI) is a power- management specification
developed by Intel, Microsoft, and Toshiba. It enables an operating system to control the amount of
power supplied to each device attached to a computer by turning off peripheral devices when they
are not in use. It defines power management on a wide range of mobile,
desktop, and server computers and peripherals. It also enables manuurers to produce computers
that automatically power up as soon as a user touches the keyboard.
Reference: "http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Energy_Star"

NO.3 Which of the following ports on a computer are used to connect a keyboard? Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. USB
B. DB-25
C. PS/ 2
D. DB-9
Answer:
A, C
Explanation:
The PS/ 2 and USB ports on a computer are used to connect a keyboard. What is USB? Universal
Serial Bus (USB) is a high speed bus standard developed by Compaq, IBM, DEC, Intel, Microsoft, NEC,
and Northern Telecom. It provides the Plug and Play capability of Windows to external hardware
devices. USB supports hot plugging, which means that a USB device can be installed or removed
while the computer is running. A single USB port can be used to connect up to 127 peripheral
devices, such as CD-ROM drives, tape drives, keyboards, scanners etc. USB 1.1 has a maximum data
transfer rate of 12 Mbps, whereas USB 2.0 has a maximum data transfer rate of 480 Mbps. USB 2.0
is fully backward compatible with USB 1.1. Answer options D and B are incorrect. The DB-9 and
DB-25 port types on the computer are used as serial ports. A DB-9 male type port has 9 pins,
whereas a DB-25 male type port has 25 pins. What is a serial port? Serial port is the primary means
for connecting modems and mouse to a computer. There are two types of serial port connectors,
9-pin and 25-pin. The word serial refers to the data is sent in series, one bit at a time, over a single
wire. This design is significantly slower than sending 8 bits at a time via a parallel channel, but serial
signals can travel much farther without degradation.

NO.4 Which of the following devices can cause great harm to one's life with lethal electric shocks?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. SMPS
B. Floppy drive
C. Monitor
D. Keyboard.
Answer: A, C

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Explanation:
A computer monitor and SMPS are at high voltage. Therefore, these devices can be fatal. They
usually have large amount of electric charge stored in capacitors for days after they have been
unplugged from power source. What is SMPS? Switch Mode Power Supply (SMPS) is a device that
converts raw input power to controlled voltage and current for the operation of electronic
equipment. SMPS uses switches for high efficiency. Answer options D and B are incorrect.
Keyboards and floppy drives do not store electric charge. Therefore, they cannot cause lethal
electric shocks.

NO.5 You are handling IT support for a sales company. One of the sales representatives complains
that his laptop does not have a network card. You wish to add one via an expansion slot. What type
of expansion card should you use?
A. MCA
B. PCMCIA
C. PCI
D. AGP
Answer: B

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Explanation:
PCMCIA is a widely used expansion card slot for laptops. What is PCMCIA card? Personal Computer
Memory Card International Association (PCMCIA) card is also known as PC card. The PC card uses a
small expansion slot and is primarily used in laptops. However, PC cards are also available in some of
the desktop computers. There are three types of PCMCIA cards. 1.Type I 2.Type II 3.Type III Answer
option C is incorrect. PCI slots are used in PC's, not laptops. Answer option D is incorrect. AGP is a
legacy
graphics slot for PC's. What is AGP (Accelerated Graphics Port)? AGP is a high speed 32-bit bus
designed for high performance graphics and video support. It allows a video card to have direct
access to a computer's RAM, which enables fast video performance. AGP provides a bandwidth of
up to 2,133 MB/second. Answer option A is incorrect. MCA is a legacy PC slot.
Reference:
http.//www.wisegeek.com/what-is-an-expansion-card.htm

NO.6 Which of the following can be used to accomplish authentication? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Biometrics
B. Encryption
C. Password
D. Token
Answer: A,C,D

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Explanation:
The following can be used to accomplish authentication.
1.Password
2.Biometrics
3.Token A password is a secret word or string of characters that is used for authentication, to prove
identity, or gain access to a resource. What is authentication? Authentication is a process of
verifying the identity of a person, network host, or system process. The authentication process
compares the provided credentials with the credentials stored in the database of an authentication
server. What is biometrics?Biometrics is a method of authentication that uses physical
characteristics, such as fingerprints, scars, retinal patterns, and other forms of biophysical qualities
to identify a user. Nowadays, the usage of biometric devices such as hand scanners and retinal
scanners is becoming more common in the business environment. A token may be a physical device
or software token that an authorized user of computer services is given to ease authentication.
Answer option B is incorrect. Encryption can be used to accomplish security and not authentication.

NO.7 You are working with a team that will be bringing in new computers to a sales department at
a company. The sales team would like to keep not only their old files, but system settings as well on
the new PC's. What should you do?
A. Do a system backup (complete) on each old machine, then restore it onto the new machines.
B. Use the Disk Management tool to move everything to the new computer.
C. Use the User State Migration tool to move the system settings and files to the new machines.
D. Copy the files and the Windows Registry to a removable media then copy it onto the new
machines.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
The User State Migration Tool is made specifically for this purpose. Large scale migrations require
not only files but system settings to be moved to new machines and Microsoft created this tool for
this purpose. What is User State Migration Tool (USMT)? User State Migration Tool (USMT) is used
to migrate user files and settings during large deployments of Microsoft Windows XP and Microsoft
Windows Vista operating systems. It captures desktop, and application settings, as well as user
accounts and users' files, and then migrates them to a new Windows installation. It helps
administrators to improve and simplify migration process. USMT can be used for both side-by-side
and wipe-and-load migrations. USMT component SCANSTATE.EXE
is used to collect the files and settings from the source computer and the LOADSTATE.EXE
component is used to restore the user state onto the destination computer. Answer option D is
incorrect. Moving the Windows registry will not work and could in cause major problems on the
new system. This is especially true if the new system has a more modern version of Windows.
Answer option B is incorrect. The disk management
tool is used for managing disk partitions. Answer option A is incorrect. A complete backup will likely
cause problems on the new installations. This is especially true if the new system has a more
modern version of Windows.
Reference: http.//technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb457090.aspx

NO.8 Which of the following statements about a riser card is true?
A. It is used to connect a computer in a network.
B. It is used to connect extra microprocessors.
C. It provides extra memory for expansion cards.
D. It is used to extend slots for expansion cards.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Riser card is a circuit board that is used to extend slots for expansion cards and provides the ability
to connect additional expansion
cards to the computer. These cards are used with LPX motherboards.
With the introduction of ATX motherboards, riser cards are rarely used. In ATX motherboards, the
expansion cards
connect directly to the computer motherboard instead of using riser cards. What is
LPX? LPX is a motherboard form or that is used in some desktop computers. In
LPX motherboards, expansion cards are inserted into a riser card that contains several
slots. Unlike other common form ors such as AT and ATX, the expansion cards in LPX
are not vertical, but parallel to the motherboard. The LPX form or is designed for
smaller cases, and usually it is used for connecting two or three expansion cards.

2014年6月2日星期一

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Code d'Examen: EK0-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (E-Biz+)
Questions et réponses: 138 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HT0-201
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CEA-CompTIA DHTI+ Exam)
Questions et réponses: 250 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is the correct wiring order for an RJ-11 two line jack?
A. Black, Green, Red, Yellow
B. Black, Red, Green, Yellow
C. Red, Black, Green, Yellow D. Yellow, Red, Green, Black
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following is the primary purpose of impedance matched volume control?
A. Maintains proper speaker phase
B. Protects the amplifier from damage
C. Protects the digital systems from damage
D. Amplifies the speaker signal
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following would be the impedance of an 8 ohm and a 4 ohm speaker that are wired in
parallel?
A. 2.66 ohms
B. Less than 1 ohm C. 4 ohms
D. 12 ohms
Answer:A

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NO.4 Which of the following is the standard aspect ratio for HDTV?
A. 2.35:1
B. 4:3
C. 1.33:1
D. 1.78:1
Answer: D

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NO.5 According to Ohm's Law, which of the following is correct?
A. As voltage increases, resistance decreases
B. As amperage decreases, resistance decreases
C. As resistance decreases, amperage increases
D. As resistance increases, voltage increases
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following determines if the alarm should sound or an entry delay should start?
A. The sensor itself
B. The way the zones are wired
C. The zone type
D. The digital dialer
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following video outputs from a media PC provide the BEST picture quality, when
connecting the media PC to a projector?
A. SVGA
B. VGA
C. S-Video
D. DVI
Answer: D

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NO.8 An optical cable is used to transmit:
A. digital audio from a component to a receiver.
B. analog video from a component to a receiver.
C. analog audio from a component to a receiver.
D. digital video from a component to a receiver.
Answer:A

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Code d'Examen: CA1-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) Beta Exam)
Questions et réponses: 208 Q&As

Code d'Examen: FC0-U41
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Strata IT Fundamentals)
Questions et réponses: 273 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following programs can collect various types of personal information, such as Internet
surfing habits, and Web sites that the user has visited?
A. Malware
B. Spyware
C. Honeypot
D. Worm
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the maximum cable length to connect a device to an IEEE 1394a port?
A. 12 meters
B. 10 meters
C. 4.5 meters
D. 5 meters
Answer: C

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NO.3 .In which of the following sizes are the Express Card modules available? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. 54 mm Wide
B. 64 mm Wide
C. 20 mm Wide
D. 34 mm Wide
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 Which of the following are the types of parental control?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Content filter control
B. Usage control
C. Monitoring control
D. Usage management tool
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.5 Which of the following are the basic options in Windows XP for putting your laptop to sleep when
you are not actively using it, but do not want to completely shut it down?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Low-power state
B. Sleeper state
C. Standby
D. Hibernate
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 .Which of the following devices can cause great harm to one's life with lethal electric shocks? Each
correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. SMPS
B. Floppy drive
C. Monitor
D. Keyboard.
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 HOTSPOT
Identify the CNR slot in the image given below.

NO.8 .Which of the following statements about a riser card is true?
A. It is used to connect a computer in a network.
B. It is used to connect extra microprocessors.
C. It provides extra memory for expansion cards.
D. It is used to extend slots for expansion cards.
Answer: D

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2014年5月26日星期一

Dernières CompTIA JK0-017 EK0-001 FC0-U41 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: JK0-017
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA E2C Project+ Certification Exam)
Questions et réponses: 402 Q&As

Code d'Examen: EK0-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (E-Biz+)
Questions et réponses: 138 Q&As

Code d'Examen: FC0-U41
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Strata IT Fundamentals)
Questions et réponses: 273 Q&As

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NO.1 The method of cost-estimating whereby the costs of the individual work packages are aggregated to
form the full cost-estimate is called:
A. parametric estimating.
B. bottom-up estimating.
C. expert judgment.
D. analogous estimating.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following represents the EAC of an ongoing project with an AC of $100,000, a CV of
$10,000 and an ETC of $50,000?
A. $90,000
B. $140,000
C. $150,000
D. $160,000
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following would be the benefit of saving a project binder in a centralized location?
A. Provides an opportunity for another project manager to review the binder and make corrections.
B. Provides an opportunity for team members to review their contributions.
C. Provides other project managers the opportunity to review the project information.
D. Provides stakeholders the opportunity to modify the change request forms.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A project manager has been informed that a project deliverable must be completed by September 1st.
Which of the following BEST describes this situation?
A. Project assumption
B. Project constraint
C. Project risk
D. Acceptance criteria
Answer: B

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NO.5 A project manager needs to identify uncertain events during the planning phase. Which of the following
documents would be the BEST source of this information?
A. Quality log
B. Risk register
C. Issues log
D. Responsibility assignment math
Answer: B

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NO.6 In which of the following situations would a risk be placed in the upper right quadrant of a risk matrix?
A. The team identified a risk to have a medium probability of occurrence and a high impact on project
success.
B. The team identified a risk to have a high probability of occurrence and a high impact on project
success.
C. The team identified a risk to have a low probability of occurrence and a high impact on project success.
D. The team identified a risk to have a high probability of occurrence and a medium impact on project
success.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following tools would be used to determine the relationship between two changed
variables?
A. Scatter diagram
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Ishikawa diagram
D. Monte Carlo analysis
Answer: C

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NO.8 A project is cancelled unexpectedly prior to completion. Which of the following would the project
manager use to document the details of the project closure?
A. Histogram
B. Postmortem
C. SWOT analysis
D. Project scope statement
Answer: B

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2014年5月13日星期二

L'avènement de la certification CompTIA pratique d'examen FC0-U41 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: FC0-U41
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Strata IT Fundamentals)
Questions et réponses: 273 Q&As

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NO.1 .You are handling IT support for a sales company. One of the sales representatives complains that his
laptop does not have a network card. You wish to add one via an expansion slot. What type of expansion
card should you use?
A. MCA
B. PCMCIA
C. PCI
D. AGP
Answer: B

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NO.2 .Which of the following transmits all ATSC HDTV standards and supports 8-channel digital audio?
A. DVI
B. S-Video
C. SVGA
D. HDMI
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the maximum cable length to connect a device to an IEEE 1394a port?
A. 12 meters
B. 10 meters
C. 4.5 meters
D. 5 meters
Answer: C

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NO.4 HOTSPOT
Identify the S-Video port in the image given below.
DVI stands for Digital Visual Interface. It is a standard for high speed, high resolution digital display
invented by Digital Display Working Group (DDWG). DVI accommodates analog and digital interfaces
with a single connector. New video cards have DVI as well as VGA ports built into them. Most of LCD
monitors come with a 15-pin VGA connection cable, even if they are capable of handling digital signals
coming from DVI connections. However, some monitors come with both types of cables. DVI has three
main categories of connectors. They are. DVI-A, DVI-D, and DVI-I. DVI-A is an analog-only connector,
DVI-D is a digital-only connector, and DVI-I is an analog/digital connector. DVI-D and DVI-I connectors
are of two types. single link and dual link. DVI supports UXGA and HDTV with a single set of links. Higher
resolutions such as 1920 x 1080, 2048 x 1536, or more can be supported with dual links. Reference.
"http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/HDMI"

NO.5 .Which of the following are types of LCD monitors?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. SVGA
B. Active Matrix
C. Passive Matrix
D. X-Matrix
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 Which of the following Interfaces has the ability to support digital audio as well as video through a
single cable?
A. VGA
B. HDMI
C. SVGA
D. DVI
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following programs can collect various types of personal information, such as Internet
surfing habits, and Web sites that the user has visited?
A. Malware
B. Spyware
C. Honeypot
D. Worm
Answer: B

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NO.8 .Which of the following statements about a riser card is true?
A. It is used to connect a computer in a network.
B. It is used to connect extra microprocessors.
C. It provides extra memory for expansion cards.
D. It is used to extend slots for expansion cards.
Answer: D

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SK0-003 FC0-TS1 dernières questions d'examen certification CompTIA et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: SK0-003
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam)
Questions et réponses: 325 Q&As

Code d'Examen: FC0-TS1
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Strata IT for Sales )
Questions et réponses: 129 Q&As

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NO.1 What transfer rate is supported by the 72-pin SO-DIMM?
A. 32-bit
B. 8-bit
C. 64-bit
D. 16-bit
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which type of cleaning solution should be used on the exterior of computer components?
A. Alcohol
B. A glass cleaner
C. Soap and water
D. An antistatic spray
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following ports support hot swapping?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Parallel
B. Serial
C. IEEE 1394
D. USB
Answer: D and C

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NO.4 What are the various standards of SCSI?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. SCSI-2
B. SCSI-1
C. SCSI-0
D. SCSI-3
Answer: B, A, and D

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NO.5 What is the other name for Firewire.?
A. IEEE 1395
B. IEEE 1394
C. IEEE 1396
D. IEEE 1397
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is the other name of a palmtop?
A. PDA
B. Desktop
C. Laptop
D. Tablet
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following can occur if the power cable runs along with the computer network cable?
A. ESD
B. Broadcast storm
C. Surge
D. EMI
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following statements about High-Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI) are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is capable of delivering the highest quality digital video and multi-channel digital audio on a single
cable.
B. It has two types of connectors: Type A and Type B.
C. It is a new I/O bus technology that has more bandwidth than PCI and AGP slots.
D. It is an interface primarily used to connect hard disk and CD drives in a computer.
Answer: B and A

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Code d'Examen: EK0-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (E-Biz+)
Questions et réponses: 138 Q&As

Code d'Examen: SY0-401
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Security+ Certification)
Questions et réponses: 512 Q&As

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NO.1 .A new advantage to consumer at click-and-mortar stores is:
A. The ability to use multiple credit cards.
B. Overnight delivery.
C. The ability to return online purchases to brick-and-mortar stored.
D. Longer warrantee periods.
Answer: C

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NO.2 .You E-Business site suffers from hacker attacks. You want to seek information on the
latest Internet security issues.
Which of the following organizations might provide you with the information?
A. Netscape
B. IANA
C. CERT
D. IEEE
Answer: C

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NO.3 .Which of the following is not a lesson learned from e-tailing?
A. Maintaining marginal profits on each sale.
B. Make sure your website performs well.
C. Establish branding whenever possible.
D. Focus on market share.
Answer: D

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NO.4 .Which of the following provides a single point of access to network resources in your
E-Business infrastructure for your business partners?
A. Tree
B. Browser
C. Domain
D. Directory service
Answer: D

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NO.5 .In E-Business, which of the following is the most common element in determining the
pricing strategy for the business?
A. Business financial status
B. Overall business model
C. Product availability
D. Product delivery
Answer: B

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NO.6 .VPNsare most susceptible to what type of attacks?
A. Trojan
B. Sniffing
C. Man in the middle
D. Virus
E. DoS
Answer: C

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NO.7 .Incremental planning based on short term milestones, which is often used in E-Business, is
called:
A. True return on investment.
B. Trigger-point planning.
C. Trig's event planning.
D. Solid contingency planning.
Answer: B

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NO.8 .Jenny has decided to make her online purchase of DVD movies from a particular retailer
because their site is easy to use and she can order quickly.
What decision criteria is she using?
A. Personal Service
B. Convenience
C. Value Proposition
D. Online Service
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: CA1-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) Beta Exam)
Questions et réponses: 208 Q&As

Code d'Examen: JK0-U11
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Functionality Exam)
Questions et réponses: 114 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following statements about a smart card are true? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is a device that contains a microprocessor and permanent memory.
B. It is used to securely store public and private keys for log on , e-mail signing and encryption, and
file encryption.
C. It is a device that routes data packets between computers in different networks.
D. It is a device that works as an interface between a computer and a network.
Answer: A,B

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Explanation:
A smart card is a credit card-sized device that contains a microprocessor and permanent memory. It
is used to securely store public and private keys for log on, e- mail signing and encryption, and file
encryption. To use a smart card, a computer must have a smart card reader attached with it.

NO.2 Which of the following refers to the data rate supported by a network connection or
interface?
A. Spam
B. Preboot Execution Environment (PXE)
C. Bandwidth
D. Branding
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Bandwidth is a term that refers to the data rate supported by a network connection or interface.
Bandwidth (or digital bandwidth) is a measurement of how much data can be sent in a period of
time. It is a data rate measured in bits. The standard unit of digital bandwidth is bits per second
(bps). In radio communication,
bandwidth (analogue bandwidth) is the range of frequencies occupied by the radio signals. The
standard unit of analogue bandwidth is Hertz (Hz).
Answer D is incorrect. In Web site designing, branding refers to the look and feel of a Web site.
Branding helps in differentiating a site from its competitors and also helps the customer to develop
a relationship with the Web site. The look and feel of a Web site comes through logo, fonts, color
schemes, and symbols used in the Web site. The overall look of the Web site should be consistent.
Answer B is incorrect. Preboot Execution Environment (PXE) is an environment to boot computers
using a network interface independently of available data storage devices like hard disks or installed
operating systems. PXE is also known as Pre-Execution Environment.
Answer A is incorrect. Spam is a term that refers to the unsolicited e-mails sent to a large number of
e-mail users. The number of such e-mails is increasing day by day, as most companies now prefer to
use e-mails for promoting their products. Because of these unsolicited e- mails, legitimate e-mails
take a much longer time to deliver to their destination. The attachments sent through spam may
also contain viruses. However, spam can be stopped by implementing spam filters on servers and
e-mail clients.

NO.3 Which of the following is used by Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) to provide data encryption?
A. IDEA
B. TKIP
C. RSA
D. RC4
Answer: B

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Explanation:
TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity Protocol) is an encryption protocol defined in the IEEE 802.11i standard
for wireless LANs (WLANs). It is designed to provide more secure encryption than the disreputably
weak Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP). TKIP is the encryption method used in Wi-Fi Protected Access
(WPA), which replaced WEP in WLAN products. TKIP is a suite of algorithms to replace WEP without
requiring the replacement of legacy WLAN equipment. TKIP uses the original WEP programming but
wraps additional code at the beginning and end to encapsulate and modify it. Like WEP , TKIP uses
the RC4 stream encryption algorithm as its basis.

NO.4 Which of the following slots on a motherboard are best for a video card? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. PCI
B. PCIe
C. EISA
D. AGP
Answer: D,B

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Explanation:
AGP and PCIe are the best slots for a video card. PCI Express (PCIe), also known as 3rd Generation
I/O (3GIO), is a type of computer bus. It is a new I/O bus technology that has more bandwidth than
PCI and AGP slots. It uses two low-voltage differential pairs, at 2.5Gb/s in each direction. It is
designed to replace PCI and AGP expansion slots. The bus is available in several different bus widths:
x1, x2, x4, x8, x12, x16, and x32. PCIe is able to transfer data in both directions at a time. PCIe
hardware will work on operating systems that support PCI. AGP is a high speed 32-bit bus designed
for high performance graphics and video support. It allows a video card to have direct access to a
computer's RAM, which enables fast video performance. AGP provides a bandwidth of up to 2,133
MB/second.
Answer C is incorrect. The Extended Industry Standard Architecture (EISA) is a 32-bit PC expansion
bus designed as a superset of a 16-bit ISA bus. The EISA bus is designed to increase the speed and
expand the data width of the legacy expansion bus while still supporting older ISA cards. EISA slots
are obsolete now.
Answer A is incorrect. PCIe and AGP slots are better than PCI slot for a video card.

NO.5 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc.
The company has a Windows 2000 domain-based network. A user working on a Windows 2000
Professional client computer reports that he is unable to access some files on the hard disk.
However, he is able to successfully log on and access other files. What should Mark do to resolve
the issue?
A. Instruct the user to log off and log on again.
B. Enable the user account on the computer.
C. Check the file permissions on the hard disk drive.
D. Check the hard disk drive using the SCANDISK utility.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
In order to resolve the issue, Mark should check the file permissions for the user on the hard disk
drive. According to the question, the user is able to access other files on the hard disk. Hence, the
most likely cause of the issue is that the user does not have sufficient privileges on those files.
Answer A is incorrect. Logging off and then logging on will not help resolve the issue.
Answer D is incorrect. Checking the hard disk drive using the SCANDISK utility will not help, as the
issue is related to permissions.
Answer B is incorrect. According to the question, the user is able to successfully log on to the
computer. This indicates that his user account is already enabled. Hence, there is no need to enable
it.

NO.6 Which of the following types of parental controls is used to limit access to the Internet
contents?
A. Monitoring control
B. Usage management tool
C. Content filter control
D. Bandwidth control
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Content filter control is a type of parental control that is used to limit access to the Internet content.
Answer A is incorrect. Monitoring control is a type of parental control that is used to track locations
nd activities when using the device.
Answer B is incorrect. Usage management tool is a type of parental control that allows parents to
enforce learning time into child computing time.
Answer D is incorrect. There is no parental control such as bandwidth control.

NO.7 A customer has come to you wanting upgrade the video card in his laptop. What would you
recommend?
A. A PCI Express card
B. Upgrade is not possible
C. A PCMCIA card
D. An AGP Card
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Video cards in laptops are built into the motherboard and cannot be upgraded.
Answer D is incorrect. An AGP card is an older type of video card for PC's.

NO.8 You are working with a team that will be bringing in new computers to a sales department at a
company.
The sales team would like to keep not only their old files, but system settings as well on the new
PC's. What should you do?
A. Do a system backup (complete) on each old machine, then restore it onto the new machines.
B. Copy the files and the Windows Registry to a removable media then copy it onto the new
machines.
C. Use the User State Migration tool to move the system settings and files to the new machines.
D. Use the Disk Management tool to move everything to the new computer.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
The User State Migration Tool is made specifically for this purpose. Large scale migrations require
not only files but system settings to be moved to new machines and Microsoft created this tool for
this purpose.

CompTIA meilleur examen JK0-U21 SGO-001, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: JK0-U21
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Technology Exam)
Questions et réponses: 241 Q&As

Code d'Examen: SGO-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Storage+ Powered by SNIA)
Questions et réponses: 537 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following terms refers to printing on both sides of the paper?
A. Duplex printing
B. Simplex printing
C. Dual printing
D. Multiplex-printing
Answer: A

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NO.2 What amount of data can a sector hold?
A. 1000 bytes
B. 512 bytes
C. 625 bytes
D. 1024 bytes
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following PC components has an air filter?
A. Processor
B. LAN Card
C. RAM
D. HDD
Answer: D

CompTIA examen   JK0-U21   JK0-U21

NO.4 What is the maximum data transfer rate supported by IEEE 1394b port?
A. 256 Kbps
B. 800 Mbps
C. 256 Mbps
D. 400 Mbps
Answer: B

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NO.5 How many colors you can have in a 24-bit color system?
A. 65,536
B. 24,000,000
C. 16,777,216
D. 36,733,216
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following PC components has an air filter?
A. RAM
B. HDD
C. CD-ROM
D. CPU
Answer: B

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NO.7 Identify whether the statement given below is true of false. "A Secure Digital (SD) card is
slightly thicker than a MultiMedia Card (MMC)."
A. False
B. True
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following is NOT a parallel port mode?
A. EPP/ECP
B. ECP
C. EPS
D. EPP
Answer: C

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2014年4月29日星期二

Dernières CompTIA HIT-001 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: HIT-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Healthcare IT Technician Exam)
Questions et réponses: 524 Q&As

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NO.1 You work in a healthcare clinic that has many patients that receive benefits from a state program that
helps low-income families with the costs of healthcare. You have to work with the state office to check on
the design and deployment of healthcare information systems that can help check eligibility policies and
deploy electronic health records in treatment and billing. What is one of the names of this kind of
program?
A. Medicare
B. Medicaid
C. Tricare
D. FEHB
Answer: B

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NO.2 A dot matrix printer prints faded or light characters on the paper. What could be the most likely cause of
the issue?
A. Incorrect printer driver
B. A print head pin that is stuck inside the print head
C. Bad printer port
D. Worn-out ribbon
Answer: D

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NO.3 You are responsible for securing the network at a law firm. You are concerned about printer security.
What steps should you take to prevent printer security breaches? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose two.
A. Remove the printer's driver from user computers.
B. Scan printer hard drives for spyware and viruses.
C. Secure any administrative connections (SSH, Telnet, etc.) to printers.
D. Limit print jobs.
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 This group can apply for incentive payments for the adaption, implementation, upgrading and/or
meaningful use of certified electronic health record technology, due to provisions of the Health Information
Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act of 2009. Each correct answer represents a complete
solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Hospitals
B. Patients
C. Healthcare Clearinghouse
D. Eligible providers
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 You are hired by an Office Manager at a branch of a home health care service company to help install
software for client scheduling, billing and insurance coding and payroll preparation. The office manager is
impressed with your work and recommends your work to the next level of administration within the
organization. What position might that be? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose
all that apply.
A. Board of Directors
B. Billing Coordinator
C. Staffing Coordinator
D. President
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 Which of the following agencies is responsible for protecting the well being of all health care workers?
A. The Joint Commission
B. Food and Drug Administration
C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
D. Department of Health and Human Services
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following commands can verify connectivity between two computers? Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. NSLOOKUP
B. PING
C. IPCONFIG
D. TRACERT
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 According to HIPAA, how long must a medical practice retain a patient's medical records?
A. ten years
B. five years
C. three years
D. HIPAA does not mandate how long.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following types of health insurance allows the patient to direct his/her own care?
A. HMO
B. Indemnity Plan
C. Point of Service
D. PPO
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following types of budget incorporates the budgets of each individual business unit?
A. Organizational Budget
B. Operating Budget
C. Statistical Budget
D. Master Budget
Answer: D

CompTIA   HIT-001   HIT-001   HIT-001 examen

NO.11 Which of the following database models is simply a collection of objects related by an object that has
certain characteristics?
A. Enterprise Model
B. Network Model
C. Hierarchal Model
D. Object Oriented Model
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following is a project management tool that is characterized by circles connected by lines
to indicate the sequence of event?
A. PERT Diagram
B. Gantt Chart
C. Venn Diagram
D. Critical Path
Answer: A

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NO.13 One of the data fields within the HL7 specifications is for Provider Type. What does this mean?
A. It's the type of healthcare facility the patient is being seen in.
B. Specifies the major grouping of the service or occupation of the practitioner
C. It's the type of insurer providing insurance coverage for the patient.
D. Specifies the seniority level of the physician
Answer: B

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Explanation: The specialty of the provider or practitioner is what is contained in the Provider Typedata
field, for example Behavioral and Social Services, or Neurology or Dermatology. Answer: A isincorrect.
Provider in this case refers to the physician or health care professional, not the facility.Answer: C is

CompTIA   HIT-001   HIT-001   HIT-001   HIT-001
incorrect. Provider does not refer to the insurance entity. Answer: D is incorrect."type" does not refer to
the seniority level of the physician, but their specialty field.

NO.14 A visiting IT professional is at an OBGYN practice and has been granted access to the computer system,
but not the practice's paper records it's previous system of charting for patients. It's after standard work
hours the IT professional is working late. He knows an ex-girlfriend used to be a patient at the practice
and decides he wants to see her charts, since he can't find her in the computer. What simple Physical
Safeguard would help fulfill HIPAA by protecting against the IT professional from accessing the practice's
PHI?
A. The paper records are in locked the mobile charting cabinets in the check-in area.
B. The paper records are color coded.
C. The paper records are locked in storage room.
D. The paper records are kept in a series of drawers only known to the Privacy Officer.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following portable computer systems is used by smart phones for offering advanced OS
capabilities? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. SBC
B. SFF
C. Tablet PC
D. PDA
E. laptop
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following measures the time a cathode-ray tube (CRT) electron beam takes to paint a
screen from top to bottom?
A. Bus width
B. Dot Pitch
C. Video RAM size
D. Refresh rate
Answer: D

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NO.17 You are asked to design an information system in which the client-server platform is based on the
following schematic. What type of architecture is incorporated within your information system?
A. Three-Tier Architecture
B. WAN Technology
C. Two-Tier Architecture
D. LAN Technology
Answer: A

CompTIA   HIT-001   HIT-001

NO.18 Which of the following traces and reports each router or gateway crossed by a TCP/IP packet on its
way to the remote host?
A. Helix
B. PATHPING
C. TRACERT
D. Netstat
Answer: C

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NO.19 Information such as your name, date of birth and social security number are all considered to be
protected health information. This information would fall into which of the following categories?
A. De-Indentified Health Information
B. Individually Identifiable Health Information
C. Archived Health Information
D. Demographic Health Information
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which of the following is the most secure among the following encryption algorithms?
A. 3DES
B. RC4
C. AES
D. DES
Answer: C

CompTIA   HIT-001   HIT-001

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