2013年9月30日星期一

Le matériel de formation de l'examen de meilleur HRCI PHR

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Code d'Examen: PHR
Nom d'Examen: HRCI (Professional in Human Resources)
Questions et réponses: 165 Q&As

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NO.1 Kelly's organization has posted a new job opening for their organization. This job opening is for a
woman to be the restroom attended, for all women's restrooms and locker rooms, in their organization.
Kelly believes, however, that the requirement for the applicant to be a female is a violation of the Title VII
of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. Which one of the following is the best answer for this scenario?
A. This is an example of an exception by bonafide occupational qualification to the Title VII of the Civil
Rights Act of 1964
B. This is an example of a violation of the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
C. The sex of applicants is excluded from the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
D. This is not a violation of the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 because there is an equal paying
and titled job for the men's restroom and locker rooms in the company
Answer: A

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NO.2 Fran is a HR Professional for her organization and she is interviewing applicants for a warehouse
position. One of the candidates has written on his application that he speaks Spanish. Fran interviews this
candidate in Spanish and interviews all other candidates in English. This is an example of what?
A. Disparate treatment
B. Disparate impact
C. Accommodation
D. Perpetuating past discrimination
Answer: A

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NO.3 You are an HR Professional for your organization. Your organization employs 120 people in the United
States. You are required to file the EEO-1 report for your organization by what date?
A. April 15 of each year
B. The anniversary date of your organization reaching 100 employees
C. January 1 of each year
D. September 30 of each year
Answer: D

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NO.4 The GHF Corporation is looking to hire four software developers. The average pay for software
developers, with the desired skill set, is $76,000. The GHF Corporation believes that by offering $80,000
for the starting salary they'll attract better performers than their competitors. What is this scenario an
example of?
A. Lagging the market
B. Leading the market
C. Matching the market
D. Beating the market
Answer: B

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NO.5 Holly is a senior worker in her organization and she is a member of the union. Her position will be
eliminated in sixty days and she will be released from the company. Rather than being unemployed, Holly
asks the union to move her to a less senior position and release a junior employee. If the union agrees to
this, what will this term be known as?
A. Bumping
B. Displacement
C. Releasing
D. Re-organization
Answer: A

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NO.6 As an HR Professional, you must be familiar with the collective bargaining agreements and the process
that rights are given, contracts, and union and management cooperation. Consider an arbitration process
between the management and the union. What term is assigned to the resolution of the disagreement, by
an arbitrator's interpretation of the language of the contract?
A. Resolution
B. Interpretation
C. Decision
D. Outcome
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the FairPay amount that defines, what a person makes, to be considered highly
compensated?
A. $110,000 or more
B. $150,000 or more
C. $100,000 or more
D. $125,000 or more
Answer: C

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NO.8 You are a HR Professional for your organization and you're preparing your team for a series of
interviews. You want the team to be familiar with the validity types you'll use and encourage in the series
of interviews. One of the requirements in the interview process for a graphic designer is, for the graphic
designer to use a software program and to create a simple brochure. This is an example of what type of
validity?
A. Construct-related validity
B. Predictive validity
C. Criterion-related validity
D. Content validity
Answer: D

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NO.9 During the organization of a union, it's possible that the union will gain recognition from the
management. The management is then obliged to give the NLRB a list of employees who are eligible to
vote in the unionization election. What is the name of the list of such employees called?
A. Constituent List
B. Union prospectus List
C. Excelsior List
D. Candidate List
Answer: C

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NO.10 The JHG Company has used discriminatory hiring practices in the past but they adjusted their
practices and are following federal laws now to ensure that fair hiring practices are met. However, the
JHG Company has an employee referral program as a primary source to recruit new employees. What
danger may the JHG Company be exposed to in this scenario?
A. Perpetuating past unintentional practices
B. Perpetuating past discrimination practices
C. Succumbing to an adverse impact
D. Not finding qualified racially diverse candidates
Answer: B

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NO.11 Consider your role as a HR Professional in your organization. In your duties you're to keep abreast of
market trends, practices in HR, employee attitudes, and your business needs. What component of the HR
Impact Model is addressed in this situation?
A. Programs and processes
B. Policies and procedures
C. Catalyst
D. Consultation
Answer: C

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NO.12 As an HR Professional you must be familiar with several different lawsuits and their affect on human
resource practices today. What legal case found that a test that has an adverse impact on a protected
class is still lawful as long as the test can be shown to be valid and job related?
A. Washington versus Davis, 1976
B. Griggs versus Duke Power, 1971
C. McDonnell Douglas Corp. versus Green, 1973
D. Albemarle Paper versus Moody, 1975
Answer: A

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NO.13 The Pregnancy Discrimination Act of 1978 prohibits employers from discriminating against employees
on the basis of pregnancy, child birth, or other related medical conditions. This law affects organizations
having what minimum number of employees?
A. All organizations with employees must abide by this law
B. Organizations with 100 or more employees
C. Organizations with 15 or more employees
D. This law only addresses federal government employees
Answer: C

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NO.14 Your organization will be using the point factor technique in their evaluations of job performance. You
need to communicate what the point factor technique accomplishes as you're the HR Professional for
your organization. Which one of the following best describes the point factor technique?
A. Specific compensable factors are identified and then performance levels within the factors are
documented.
B. Specific compensable factors are identified and then performance levels within the factors are
weighted on importance to theemployee.
C. Performance factors are identified by the employee and then performance levels within the factors are
weighted based on importance to the organization.
D. Specific compensable factors are identified and then performance levels within the factors are
documented. The different factors and levels are weighted based on importance to the organization.
Answer: D

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NO.15 There are four components of the HR Impact Model, which affect how a HR Professional may operate
within a given environment. Which one of the following is NOT a component of the HR Impact Model.?
A. Consultation
B. Client
C. Catalyst
D. Programs and processes
Answer: B

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NO.16 As an HR Professional, you are required to post an OSHA poster in a conspicuous place that is easily
visible to employees. What OSHA poster lists each of the employee's rights?
A. OSHA 3165 poster
B. OSHA 5613 poster
C. OSHA 5131 poster
D. OSHA 3615 poster
Answer: A

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NO.17 As a Senior HR Professional, you should be familiar with non-monetary rewards that your company
provides for its employees. Which of the following is an example of non-monetary reward?
A. Satisfaction from challenging and exciting assignments
B. Esteem from working with other talented people
C. Cash compensation
D. On-site cafeteria
Answer: D

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NO.18 You are an HR Professional for your organization. You and your supervisor are reviewing the EEO
reporting requirements for your company to comply with the reports your firm should file. Which EEO
Report is a survey, collected every other year on even calendar years?
A. EEO-4 Report
B. EEO-5 Report
C. EEO-3 Report
D. EEO-1 Report
Answer: C

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NO.19 Your organization has a retirement benefits plan that is covered by ERISA . Under ERISA, which of the
following is your organization required to do for the plan participants?
A. Provide each participant with plan information, specifically about the features and funding of the plan
through a summary plan description at a cost of no more than $7 per participant, per year.
B. Provide each participant with plan information, specifically about the features and funding of the plan
through a summary plan description at no cost.
C. Provide each participant with monthly plan information, specifically about the features and funding of
the plan through a summary plan description at no more than $7 perparticipant, per month.
D. Provide each participant with monthly plan information, specifically about the features and funding of
the plan through a summary plan description at no cost.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Your manager has approached you regarding her desire to outsource certain functions to an external
firm. She would like for you to create a document to send to three vendors asking them for solutions for
these functions that your organization is to outsource. What type of a procurement document would you
create and send to the vendors in this instance?
A. Request for Proposal
B. Request for Quote
C. Invitation for Bid
D. Request for Information
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: L50-503
Nom d'Examen: LSI (LSI SVM5 Sales Consultant)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

L50-503 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/L50-503.html

NO.1 Your customer calls to discuss their SVM servers and their consolidation project's impact on their SVM
server port count. They are moving from a pair of dual controllers with four ports to one dual controller with
eight ports. Which statement accurately describes what the impact will be?
A. They will need four more ports on each SVM server.
B. They will need four fewer ports on each SVM server.
C. They cannot change the SVM server's port count.
D. They will need eight more ports on each SVM server.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A long time customer and SVM prospect just called requesting your help to virtualize their data center
using VMware. What are three ways that SVM's snapshot capabilities will help this customer? (Choose
three.)
A. SVM snapshots will eliminate tape from the customer's environment.
B. SVM makes it possible to keep the point-in-time snapshots online for extended periods of time and to
recover from them quickly.
C. SVM snapshots can eliminate the need to install backup agents on every virtual machine.
D. SVM snapshots will protect from physical failures.
E. SVM snapshots can be used to reduce time required to stage, test, and debug software applications.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.3 What are two recommended ways of organizing pools? (Choose two.)
A. by host
B. by RAID level
C. by DPM
D. by users
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 Why would a customer use thin provisioning to manage their storage?
A. to provision more physical capacity to a LUN than is actually needed
B. to cluster LUNs of similar type into one management entity
C. to add more volumes to a management domain than are supported by hardware
D. to create large virtual volumes based on a small amount of physical capacity
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which statement describes tiered storage?
A. An infrastructure designed to lower the overall cost of storage by placing volumes on "fit for purpose"
storage based on defined cost, availability, and performance requirements.
B. An infrastructure designed to place data on the storage devices that have the lowest price per
megabyte ratio.
C. An infrastructure designed to place data on different storage devices to ensure a heterogeneous
model.
D. An infrastructure designed to place data on different storage devices to ensure a homogeneous model.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Your SVM customer calls with questions about performance tuning in their VMware environment. One
of their storage arrays is not running fast enough to support the application for several days each month.
What would you recommend?
A. Buy a faster storage array and move the data with multiView.
B. Use multiCopy to copy the data to a different storage tier, stop the application and remount the data to
the copy.
C. Back up the data off a snapshot and restore it to a faster array.
D. Use multiMigrate to move the application's data to a higher performing storage tier for the busy days.
Answer: D

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NO.7 How can SVM's centralized management provide better performance?
A. by allocating capacity across RAID arrays
B. by striping volumes across RAID arrays
C. by mirroring volumes across RAID arrays
D. by provisioning additional servers
Answer: B

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NO.8 What are two ways that SVM supports consolidation? (Choose two.)
A. SVM can reserve space for future use on a LUN-by-LUN basis.
B. SVM can build RAID structures for enhanced data protection.
C. SVM can migrate data from multiple storage arrays onto a single storage array.
D. SVM can make snapshots of volume groups that are spread across multiple storage arrays.
Answer: C,D

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NO.9 Your customer calls to discuss their DPMs and their consolidation project's impact on their DPM port
count. They are moving from a pair of dual controllers with four ports to one dual controller with eight ports.
Which statement accurately describes what they should do.?
A. They will need four more ports on each DPM.
B. They will need four fewer ports on each DPM.
C. They will need eight more ports on each DPM.
D. They will not need to change their DPM port count.
Answer: D

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NO.10 A long time customer just called requesting your help justifying SVM as they virtualize their data center
using VMware. What are three reasons SVM's storage services would benefit this customer? (Choose
three.)
A. Rapid application recovery is easier with SVM's snapshot capabilities.
B. SVM will make provisioning easy and fast.
C. Disaster recovery will be less expensive than using traditional methods.
D. SVM will eliminate the need for tape.
E. SVM will automatically size storage to fit the data.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.11 Your client is concerned about disaster recovery. You are explaining that SVM can recover from both
physical and logical failures positioning the fact that the majority of failures are actually logical. What
would be a good example for your client?
A. file deletion
B. hardware failure
C. loss of a site due to a disaster
D. split-path architecture
Answer: A

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NO.12 What are two functions of the Data Path Module? (Choose two.)
A. DPM processes control frames.
B. DPM processes data frames.
C. DPM manages metadata.
D. DPM translates addresses.
Answer: B,D

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NO.13 What are three functions of the SVM server? (Choose three.)
A. The SVM server processes control frames.
B. The SVM server processes data frames.
C. The SVM server manages metadata.
D. The SVM server translates addresses.
E. The SVM server moves data.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.14 In an IT center with several different vendors storage arrays, virtualized networked storage with SVM
provides migration of data to less expensive tiers of storage by doing what?
A. Pooling the storage into a server virtualization model whereby different servers can emulate hosts and
tier the data.
B. Pooling the storage into a networked virtualization model zoning the virtualized storage utilizing
third-party tools.
C. Pooling the storage across different vendors?storage arrays into a centralized pool and then assigning
different applications and tiers to different pools.
D. Pooling the storage across different vendors?storage arrays into assigned volume groups and use
virtual servers to tier the data.
Answer: C

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NO.15 When moving existing LUNs into a pool, which feature would you use?
A. SVM multiCopy
B. SVM multiMirror
C. SVM multiView
D. SVM disk import
Answer: D

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NO.16 What is an advantage of using thin provisioning over traditional capacity provisioning?
A. A thin volume serves up only the data blocks called for by a read or write request.
B. A thin volume automatically provisions additional capacity for large I/O read requests.
C. A thin volume holds only the changes (writes) made by hosts to the thin volume.
D. A thin volume migrates data from an existing LUN into a new pool.
Answer: C

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NO.17 What are three benefits of using thin provisioning? (Choose three.)
A. reclaiming trapped capacity
B. creating empty volumes to reserve capacity
C. expanding volume capacity automatically
D. making multiple copies of volumes for backups
E. saving money on overall storage costs
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.18 An SVM prospect just called requesting that you virtualize their data center using VMware. What are
three ways that SVM's volume management capabilities will help this customer? (Choose three.)
A. SVM allows users to quickly and efficiently create and manage volumes for each of the virtual
machines.
B. SVM eliminates the need to deal with ongoing LUN management at the array level.
C. SVM will prevent the virtual servers from running out of space.
D. SVM allows storage be provisioned and reallocated after use with the same simplicity as the virtual
servers.
E. SVM will size the volumes to the actual data size.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.19 A warehousing company is in the process of a changeover to a new supplier thus switching out their
inventory. During this changeover, the business requires the highest performance of the inventory
database application. This database currently resides on Tier 3 storage. The customer's Tier 1 storage
has 15000 RPM Fibre Channel drives while the Tier 3 storage has 7200 RPM SATA drives. What is the
SVM solution for this customer?
A. Use the multi-pathing architecture to zone the host dedicated to the Tier 1 storage and zone a separate
host dedicated to Tier 3.
B. Non-disruptively promote the volumes from the Tier 3 storage to the Tier 1 storage before the
changeover and demote the volumes back to Tier 3 when the changeover is complete.
C. Define data policies which will automatically migrate data to Tier 1 and Tier 3 storage levels providing
instant tiering.
D. Non-disruptively place all of the 15000 RPM drives in one array and all of the 7200 RPM drives in
another array thus automatically tiering your storage to different workloads.
Answer: B

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NO.20 When consolidating onto a new storage platform, what actually moves the data?
A. the Data Path Module
B. the SVM server
C. the storage array
D. the SAN switch
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: GCIH
Nom d'Examen: GIAC (GIAC Certified Incident Handler)
Questions et réponses: 335 Q&As

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NO.1 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned a project to test the security of
www.we-are-secure.com. On the We-are-secure login page, he enters ='or''=' as a username and
successfully logs in to the user page of the Web site. The We-are-secure login page is vulnerable to a
__________.
A. Dictionary attack
B. SQL injection attack
C. Replay attack
D. Land attack
Answer: B

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NO.2 You see the career section of a company's Web site and analyze the job profile requirements. You
conclude that the company wants professionals who have a sharp knowledge of Windows server 2003
and Windows active directory installation and placement. Which of the following steps are you using to
perform hacking?
A. Scanning
B. Covering tracks
C. Reconnaissance
D. Gaining access
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following tools is used for vulnerability scanning and calls Hydra to launch a dictionary
attack?
A. Whishker
B. Nessus
C. SARA
D. Nmap
Answer: B

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NO.4 Fill in the blank with the appropriate word.
StackGuard (as used by Immunix), ssp/ProPolice (as used by OpenBSD), and Microsoft's /GS option use
______ defense against buffer overflow attacks.
A. canary
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following types of attack can guess a hashed password?
A. Brute force attack
B. Evasion attack
C. Denial of Service attack
D. Teardrop attack
Answer: A

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NO.6 Adam works as a Security Analyst for Umbrella Inc. Company has a Windows-based network. All
computers run on Windows XP. Manager of the Sales department complains Adam about the unusual
behavior of his computer. He told Adam that some pornographic contents are suddenly appeared on his
computer overnight. Adam suspects that some malicious software or Trojans have been installed on the
computer. He runs some diagnostics programs and Port scanners and found that the Port 12345, 12346,
and 20034 are open. Adam also noticed some tampering with the Windows registry, which causes one
application to run every time when Windows start.
Which of the following is the most likely reason behind this issue?
A. Cheops-ng is installed on the computer.
B. Elsave is installed on the computer.
C. NetBus is installed on the computer.
D. NetStumbler is installed on the computer.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Choose and reorder the steps of an incident handling process in their correct order.
A.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following types of attacks is only intended to make a computer resource unavailable to its
users?
A. Denial of Service attack
B. Replay attack
C. Teardrop attack
D. Land attack
Answer: A

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NO.9 Adam has installed and configured his wireless network. He has enabled numerous security features
such as changing the default SSID, enabling WPA encryption, and enabling MAC filtering on his wireless
router. Adam notices that when he uses his wireless connection, the speed is sometimes 16 Mbps and
sometimes it is only 8 Mbps or less. Adam connects to the management utility wireless router and finds
out that a machine with an unfamiliar name is connected through his wireless connection. Paul checks the
router's logs and notices that the unfamiliar machine has the same MAC address as his laptop.
Which of the following attacks has been occurred on the wireless network of Adam?
A. NAT spoofing
B. DNS cache poisoning
C. MAC spoofing
D. ARP spoofing
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following is a technique of using a modem to automatically scan a list of telephone
numbers, usually dialing every number in a local area code to search for computers, Bulletin board
systems, and fax machines?
A. Demon dialing
B. Warkitting
C. War driving
D. Wardialing
Answer: D

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NO.11 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security
of www.we-are-secure.com. He finds that the We-are-secure server is vulnerable to attacks. As a
countermeasure, he suggests that the Network Administrator should remove the IPP printing capability
from the server. He is suggesting this as a countermeasure against __________.
A. IIS buffer overflow
B. NetBIOS NULL session
C. SNMP enumeration
D. DNS zone transfer
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following statements about buffer overflow is true?
A. It manages security credentials and public keys for message encryption.
B. It is a collection of files used by Microsoft for software updates released between major service pack
releases.
C. It is a condition in which an application receives more data than it is configured to accept.
D. It is a false warning about a virus.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Buffer overflows are one of the major errors used for exploitation on the Internet today. A buffer
overflow occurs when a particular operation/function writes more data into a variable than the variable
was designed to hold.
Which of the following are the two popular types of buffer overflows?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Dynamic buffer overflows
B. Stack based buffer overflow
C. Heap based buffer overflow
D. Static buffer overflows
Answer: B, C

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NO.14 Which of the following types of attacks is the result of vulnerabilities in a program due to poor
programming techniques?
A. Evasion attack
B. Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack
C. Ping of death attack
D. Buffer overflow attack
Answer: D

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NO.15 Ryan, a malicious hacker submits Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) exploit code to the Website of Internet
forum for online discussion. When a user visits the infected Web page, code gets automatically executed
and Ryan can easily perform acts like account hijacking, history theft etc. Which of the following types of
Cross-Site Scripting attack Ryan intends to do?
A. Non persistent
B. Document Object Model (DOM)
C. SAX
D. Persistent
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following applications is an example of a data-sending Trojan?
A. SubSeven
B. Senna Spy Generator
C. Firekiller 2000
D. eBlaster
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following are the primary goals of the incident handling team?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Freeze the scene.
B. Repair any damage caused by an incident.
C. Prevent any further damage.
D. Inform higher authorities.
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.18 Adam works as an Incident Handler for Umbrella Inc. He has been sent to the California unit to train the
members of the incident response team. As a demo project he asked members of the incident response
team to perform the following actions:
Remove the network cable wires.
Isolate the system on a separate VLAN.
Use a firewall or access lists to prevent communication into or out of the system.
Change DNS entries to direct traffic away from compromised system.
Which of the following steps of the incident handling process includes the above actions?
A. Identification
B. Containment
C. Eradication
D. Recovery
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following statements are true about worms?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Worms cause harm to the network by consuming bandwidth, whereas viruses almost always corrupt or
modify files on a targeted computer.
B. Worms can exist inside files such as Word or Excel documents.
C. One feature of worms is keystroke logging.
D. Worms replicate themselves from one system to another without using a host file.
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.20 Which of the following statements are true about tcp wrappers?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. tcp wrapper provides access control, host address spoofing, client username lookups, etc.
B. When a user uses a TCP wrapper, the inetd daemon runs the wrapper program tcpd instead of running
the server program directly.
C. tcp wrapper allows host or subnetwork IP addresses, names and/or ident query replies, to be used as
tokens to filter for access control purposes.
D. tcp wrapper protects a Linux server from IP address spoofing.
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.21 You have configured a virtualized Internet browser on your Windows XP professional computer. Using
the virtualized Internet browser, you can protect your operating system from which of the following?
A. Brute force attack
B. Mail bombing
C. Distributed denial of service (DDOS) attack
D. Malware installation from unknown Web sites
Answer: D

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NO.22 Which of the following commands is used to access Windows resources from Linux workstation?
A. mutt
B. scp
C. rsync
D. smbclient
Answer: D

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NO.23 Which of the following statements about Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. It disrupts services to a specific computer.
B. It changes the configuration of the TCP/IP protocol.
C. It saturates network resources.
D. It disrupts connections between two computers, preventing communications between services.
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.24 Adam, a malicious hacker, wants to perform a reliable scan against a remote target. He is not
concerned about being stealth at this point.
Which of the following type of scans would be most accurate and reliable?
A. UDP sacn
B. TCP Connect scan
C. ACK scan
D. Fin scan
Answer: B

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NO.25 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned a project to test the security of
www.we-are-secure.com. He performs Web vulnerability scanning on the We-are-secure server. The
output of the scanning test is as follows:
C:\whisker.pl -h target_IP_address
-- whisker / v1.4.0 / rain forest puppy / www.wiretrip.net -- = - = - = - = - =
= Host: target_IP_address
= Server: Apache/1.3.12 (Win32) ApacheJServ/1.1
mod_ssl/2.6.4 OpenSSL/0.9.5a mod_perl/1.22
+ 200 OK: HEAD /cgi-bin/printenv
John recognizes /cgi-bin/printenv vulnerability ('Printenv' vulnerability) in the We_are_secure server.
Which of the following statements about 'Printenv' vulnerability are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. This vulnerability helps in a cross site scripting attack.
B. 'Printenv' vulnerability maintains a log file of user activities on the Website, which may be useful for the
attacker.
C. The countermeasure to 'printenv' vulnerability is to remove the CGI script.
D. With the help of 'printenv' vulnerability, an attacker can input specially crafted links and/or other
malicious scripts.
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.26 John works as a Professional Penetration Tester. He has been assigned a project to test the Website
security of www.we-are-secure Inc. On the We-are-secure Website login page, he enters ='or''=' as a
username and successfully logs on to the user page of the Web site. Now, John asks the we-aresecure
Inc. to improve the login page PHP script. Which of the following suggestions can John give to improve
the security of the we-are-secure Website login page from the SQL injection attack?
A. Use the escapeshellarg() function
B. Use the session_regenerate_id() function
C. Use the mysql_real_escape_string() function for escaping input
D. Use the escapeshellcmd() function
Answer: C

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NO.27 In which of the following DoS attacks does an attacker send an ICMP packet larger than 65,536 bytes to
the target system?
A. Ping of death
B. Jolt
C. Fraggle
D. Teardrop
Answer: A

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NO.28 Adam, a novice computer user, works primarily from home as a medical professional. He just bought a
brand new Dual Core Pentium computer with over 3 GB of RAM. After about two months of working on his
new computer, he notices that it is not running nearly as fast as it used to. Adam uses antivirus software,
anti-spyware software, and keeps the computer up-to-date with Microsoft patches. After another month of
working on the computer, Adam finds that his computer is even more noticeably slow. He also notices a
window or two pop-up on his screen, but they quickly disappear. He has seen these windows show up,
even when he has not been on the Internet. Adam notices that his computer only has about 10 GB of free
space available. Since his hard drive is a 200 GB hard drive, Adam thinks this is very odd.
Which of the following is the mostly likely the cause of the problem.?
A. Computer is infected with the stealth kernel level rootkit.
B. Computer is infected with stealth virus.
C. Computer is infected with the Stealth Trojan Virus.
D. Computer is infected with the Self-Replication Worm.
Answer: A

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NO.29 Network mapping provides a security testing team with a blueprint of the organization. Which of the
following steps is NOT a part of manual network mapping?
A. Gathering private and public IP addresses
B. Collecting employees information
C. Banner grabbing
D. Performing Neotracerouting
Answer: D

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NO.30 Which of the following statements are true about a keylogger?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It records all keystrokes on the victim's computer in a predefined log file.
B. It can be remotely installed on a computer system.
C. It is a software tool used to trace all or specific activities of a user on a computer.
D. It uses hidden code to destroy or scramble data on the hard disk.
Answer: A, B, C

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Code d'Examen: GSNA
Nom d'Examen: GIAC (GIAC Systems and Network Auditor)
Questions et réponses: 368 Q&As

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NO.1 John works as a Security Professional. He is assigned a project to test the security of www.we-
are-secure.com. John wants to get the information of all network connections and listening ports in the
numerical form. Which of the following commands will he use?
A. netstat -e
B. netstat r
C. netstat -s
D. netstat an
Answer: D

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NO.2 You run the wc -c file1.txt command. If this command displays any error message, you want to store the
error message in the error.txt file. Which of the following commands will you use to accomplish the task?
A. wc -c file1.txt >>error.txt
B. wc -c file1.txt 1>error.txt
C. wc -c file1.txt 2>error.txt
D. wc -c file1.txt >error.txt
Answer: C

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NO.3 John works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based
network. John is working as a root user on the Linux operating system. He wants to forward all the kernel
messages to the remote host having IP address 192.168.0.1. Which of the following changes will he
perform in the syslog.conf file to accomplish the task?
A. kern.* @192.168.0.1
B. !*.* @192.168.0.1
C. !kern.* @192.168.0.1
D. *.* @192.168.0.1
Answer: A

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NO.4 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security of
www.we-are-secure.com. He wants to use Kismet as a wireless sniffer to sniff the Weare-secure network.
Which of the following IEEE-based traffic can be sniffed with Kismet?
A. 802.11g
B. 802.11n
C. 802.11b
D. 802.11a
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.5 A Web developer with your company wants to have wireless access for contractors that come in to
work on various projects. The process of getting this approved takes time. So rather than wait, he has put
his own wireless router attached to one of the network ports in his department. What security risk does
this present?
A. None, adding a wireless access point is a common task and not a security risk.
B. It is likely to increase network traffic and slow down network performance.
C. This circumvents network intrusion detection.
D. An unauthorized WAP is one way for hackers to get into a network.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following allows the use of multiple virtual servers using different DNS names resolved by
the same IP address?
A. HTTP 1.1
B. JAVA
C. HTML
D. VPN
Answer: A

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NO.7 You work as a Network Auditor for XYZ CORP. The company has a Windows-based network. While
auditing the company's network, you are facing problems in searching the faults and other entities that
belong to it. Which of the following risks may occur due to the existence of these problems?
A. Residual risk
B. Inherent risk
C. Secondary risk
D. Detection risk
Answer: D

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NO.8 You work as a Network Administrator for XYZ CORP. The company has a Windows Server 2008
network environment. The network is configured as a Windows Active Directory-based single forest single
domain network. You have installed a Windows Server 2008 computer. You have configured auditing on
this server. The client computers of the company use the Windows XP Professional operating system.
You want to audit each event that is related to a user managing an account in the user database on the
computer where the auditing is configured. To accomplish the task, you have enabled the Audit account
management option on the server. Which of the following events can be audited by enabling this audit
option.?
A. Access to an Active Directory object
B. Change of password for a user account
C. Addition of a user account to a group
D. Creation of a user account
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.9 You work as a Network Administrator for XYZ CORP. The company has a Windows Active
Directory-based single domain single forest network. The functional level of the forest is Windows Server
2003. The company's management has decided to provide laptops to its sales team members. These
laptops are equipped with smart card readers. The laptops will be configured as wireless network clients.
You are required to accomplish the following tasks: The wireless network communication should be
secured. The laptop users should be able to use smart cards for getting authenticated. In order to
accomplish the tasks, you take the following steps: Configure 802.1x and WEP for the wireless
connections. Configure the PEAP-MS-CHAP v2 protocol for authentication. What will happen after you
have taken these steps?
A. Both tasks will be accomplished.
B. The laptop users will be able to use smart cards for getting authenticated.
C. The wireless network communication will be secured.
D. None of the tasks will be accomplished.
Answer: C

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NO.10 George works as an office assistant in Soft Well Inc. The company uses the Windows Vista operating
system. He wants to disable a program running on a computer. Which of the following Windows Defender
tools will he use to accomplish the task?
A. Allowed items
B. Quarantined items
C. Options
D. Software Explorer
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following is a wireless auditing tool that is used to pinpoint the actual physical location of
wireless devices in the network?
A. KisMAC
B. Ekahau
C. Kismet
D. AirSnort
Answer: B

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NO.12 You work as the Network Administrator for XYZ CORP. The company has a Unix-based network. You
want to print the super block and block the group information for the filesystem present on a system.
Which of the following Unix commands can you use to accomplish the task?
A. e2fsck
B. dump
C. dumpe2fs
D. e2label
Answer: C

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NO.13 You work as the Network Administrator for XYZ CORP. The company has a Unix-based network. You
want to set some terminal characteristics and environment variables. Which of the following Unix
configuration files can you use to accomplish the task?
A. /etc/sysconfig/routed
B. /proc/net
C. /etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/ifcfg-interface
D. /etc/sysconfig/init
Answer: D

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NO.14 You check performance logs and note that there has been a recent dramatic increase in the amount of
broadcast traffic. What is this most likely to be an indicator of?
A. Misconfigured router
B. DoS attack
C. Syn flood
D. Virus
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following statements about the traceroute utility are true?
A. It uses ICMP echo packets to display the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of
each gateway along the route to the remote host.
B. It records the time taken for a round trip for each packet at each router.
C. It is an online tool that performs polymorphic shell code attacks.
D. It generates a buffer overflow exploit by transforming an attack shell code so that the new attack shell
code cannot be recognized by any Intrusion Detection Systems.
Answer: A,B

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NO.16 John works as a contract Ethical Hacker. He has recently got a project to do security checking for
www.we-are-secure.com. He wants to find out the operating system of the we-are-secure server in the
information gathering step. Which of the following commands will he use to accomplish the task? (Choose
two)
A. nc 208.100.2.25 23
B. nmap -v -O www.we-are-secure.com
C. nc -v -n 208.100.2.25 80
D. nmap -v -O 208.100.2.25
Answer: B,D

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NO.17 Sarah works as a Web Developer for XYZ CORP. She is creating a Web site for her company. Sarah
wants greater control over the appearance and presentation of Web pages. She wants the ability to
precisely specify the display attributes and the appearance of elements on the Web pages. How will she
accomplish this?
A. Use the Database Design wizard.
B. Make two templates, one for the index page and the other for all other pages.
C. Use Cascading Style Sheet (CSS).
D. Make a template and use it to create each Web page.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following is Microsoft's implementation of the file and application server for the Internet
and private intranets?
A. Internet Server Service (ISS)
B. Internet Server (IS)
C. WWW Server (WWWS)
D. Internet Information Server (IIS)
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following tools works both as an encryption-cracking tool and as a keylogger?
A. Magic Lantern
B. KeyGhost Keylogger
C. Alchemy Remote Executor
D. SocketShield
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following statements are true about locating rogue access points using WLAN discovery
software such as NetStumbler, Kismet, or MacStumbler if you are using a Laptop integrated with Wi-Fi
compliant MiniPCI card? (Choose two)
A. These tools can determine the rogue access point even when it is attached to a wired network.
B. These tools can determine the authorization status of an access point.
C. These tools cannot detect rogue access points if the victim is using data encryption.
D. These tools detect rogue access points if the victim is using IEEE 802.11 frequency bands.
Answer: B,D

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Code d'Examen: adwords-display
Nom d'Examen: Google (Google Display Exam Practice Test)
Questions et réponses: 221 Q&As

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NO.1 You are managing a Google AdWords campaign for a company. You launch a new display campaign.
In the first week of the campaign launch, you noticed a large number of clicksbut no conversions. Which
of the following actions can you perform to resolve the issue?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Increase bidding for successful sites.
B. Verify that your conversion code is set up correctly.
C. Evaluate performance of campaign regularly.
D. Check the ad creative and the landing page to make sure they are well matched.
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 Mary Jane wants to use the view-through conversion tracking feature in Google AdWords. How long
must Mary Jane's ad run before she can use this feature accurately?
A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 24 hours
D. 7 days
Answer: A

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NO.3 Consider the image shown below:
What will happen if you click on the "history of soccer" link in the image?
A. You'll be taken to the first page with the keyword "history of soccer" in the Google search r esults.
B. Another line will branch out from "soccer" with related links to the "history of soccer" link.
C. The "soccer" wheel will fade to the background and a new wheel called "history of soccer" will be
created.
D. Google AdWords will display ads related to the "history of soccer" for this keyword.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Amy is managing a Google AdWords campaign for her company. Her manager has asked Amy to
create a performance report for the overall campaign performance. What steps will Amy take to generate
this performance report?
A. Amy will click Campaigns, then Reports, then Create New Report for All Campaigns, and then she'll
select the Campaign Performance option.
B. Amy will click Reporting, then Reports, then Create New Report, and then she'll select the Campaign
Performance option.
C. Amy will click Campaigns, then Reports, then Create New Report, and then she'll select the Campaign
Performance option.
D. Amy will click Opportunities, then Keywords, then Create New Report, and then she'll select the
Campaign Performance option.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Fred is a Google AdWords consultant for his client. He is explaining to his client that there are actually
three ways to add managed placements to an ad group. Which one of the following is NOT one of the
three methods Fred can use to add managed placements to an ad group?
A. Manually adding
B. Browsing the Web for placements with the Google AdWords toolbar
C. Copying from the automatic placement table
D. Using the Placement tool
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following bidding strategies will you use if you are focused on a particular customer action,
such as leads or purchases?
A. CPA bidding
B. CPM bidding
C. Manual CPC bidding
D. Automatic CPC bidding
Answer: A

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NO.7 Andy is a consultant to a business that wants to advertise in the Google Content Network. He
recommends that the business owner use the contextual targeting for his ads. What is the contextual
targeting?
A. The contextual targeting allows the business owner to target specific languages.
B. The contextual targeting allows the business owner to select keywords related to the products for sale
so his ads will show on related Websites.
C. The contextual targeting allows the business owner to target specific demographics.
D. The contextual targeting allows the business owner to insert ads into a series of related We bsites.
Answer: B

Google   adwords-display   adwords-display

NO.8 Which of the following tabs will you use to see and edit details of all the ad groups in your AdWords
account?
A. Ad groups
B. Campaign
C. Statistics
D. Status
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following is a Google property where display ads are eligible to appear?
A. MSN
B. YouTube
C. Wonder wheel
D. Yahoo
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following tools will you use to identify potential ad group themes for your display
campaigns?
A. Google analytics
B. Google trends
C. Wonder wheel
D. Display ad builder
Answer: C

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NO.11 Allen is managing ads for his company and he'd like to include the ads in the Google Content Network.
Where does Allen configure automatic placements of ads in the Google Content Network for his
campaigns?C
A. Allen will select "Relevant pages across the entire network" in the "Network Settings" section on his
"Settings" tab.
B. Allen will select "Relevant pages across the entire network" in the "Network Settings" section on his
"Networks" tab.
C. Allen will select "Relevant pages across the entire network" in the "Ad Settings" section on his
"Settings" tab.
D. Allen will select "Relevant pages across the entire network" in the "Network Settings" section on his
"Opportunities" tab.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Google has some very specific recommendations for planning a display campaign. According to Google,
what is the top recommendation for planning an effective display campaign?
A. Set your bids and budget.
B. Identify your goals.
C. Find your target audience.
D. Create your custom display ad.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Jan has a Website selling shoes and socks online. She would like to use Google AdWords'
costperacquisition approach for her ads. If Jan uses this approach what must she also do?
A. Jan must also use Google Checkout.
B. Jan must be a preferred Google vendor.
C. Jan must use the Conversion Optimizer.
D. Jan must set her CPC maximum bids to a minimum of 25 cents.
Answer: C

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NO.14 In the Google Content Network, there are three bidding strategies that a Google AdWords advertiser
may use. Which one of the following is NOT one of the three bidding strategies in the
Google Content Network?
A. Cost-per-acquisition bidding
B. Cost-per-month bidding
C. Cost-per-click bidding
D. Cost-per-thousand bidding
Answer: B

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NO.15 Henry has created a video that he'd like to include in the Google Content Network. His video is a
demonstration of a product that he sells on his website. With this type of content, what type of video
advertising is Henry interested in using in the Google Content Network?
A. Overlay video ad
B. In-stream video ad
C. Click-to-play video ad
D. Video placement ad
Answer: C

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NO.16 Bob is reviewing his Google AdWords for the Google Content Network, which has been running for the
past sixty days. Bob is interested in the view-through conversion tracking. What is viewthrough
conversion tracking.?
A. It's the number of conversions that have happened after a user saw, but didn't click, Bob's ad.
B. It's the number of conversions that have happened from a video ad.
C. It's the conversion rate for ads in the Google Content Network.
D. It's the cost of conversions that have happened after a user saw Bob's ad online.
Answer: A

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NO.17 Google makes many recommendations for Google AdWords users for direct response campaigns.
One of the recommendations Google makes is to implement cost-per-click bidding so that you only pay
when people click your ad. What other reason is valid for using the cost-per-click bidding?
A. If you want to be included in Google Content Network, you must use cost-per-click bidding.
B. If you are creating a display ad, you must use cost-per-click bidding.
C. If you want to include video overlays ads, you must use cost-per-click bidding.
D. If you want to use the Conversion Optimizer tool, you must use cost-per-click bidding.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Examine the image given below:
What Google Tool is being used in the image above?
A. Google Wonder Wheel
B. Google Rich Media Ad Builder
C. Google Ad Builder
D. Google Ads Diagnostic Tool
Answer: C

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NO.19 Jeffrey has an online store that caters to collectors of antique pins based on comic book characters.
His audience is small, but dedicated. If you were advising Jeffrey about his online advertising sales, which
of the following would be the best strategy considering Jeffrey's audience?
A. Use the Google Content Network for niche placements.
B. Use the Google Content Network with automatic placements based on hundreds of comic-book based
keywords.
C. Use Google AdWords for search marketing.
D. Use Google AdWords with hundreds of comic-book based keywords.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following is one of the reserved media placements available on YouTube?
A. Play rate
B. Partner Watch Pages
C. Display ad builder
D. AdWords Auction
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: ACMA-6.1
Nom d'Examen: Aruba (Aruba Certified Mobility Associate 6.1)
Questions et réponses: 72 Q&As

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NO.1 What are some best practices when configuring the Aruba Firewall (Select two)?:
A. Use aliases when possible
B. Write rules from least specific to most specific
C. Take actions like blacklisting when users violate policies
D. Create a different policy for each unique rule
E. Create different policies for access to different servers
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 When configuring a default gateway in the startup wizard it must be a part of:
A. A VLAN configured with an IP interface and assigned to a port
B. An IP range that is not assigned to a port or VLAN
C. A VLAN assigned to a port but without an IP interface configured
D. A VLAN not configured on the controller
E. The management Vlan
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following statements about management accounts is false?
A. The root account can be used to monitor access points connected to the controller
B. The guest-provisioning account can see the controller's configuration but cannot change it
C. The read-only account cannot delete internal database entries
D. The guest-provisioning account can make changes to the internal AP database
E. The network-operations account cannot access configuration
Answer: B

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NO.4 Firewall policy should be written from:
A. Least specific to most specific
B. Most specific to least specific
C. Most important resources first
D. Order is not important
E. Policies with the most rules 1st
Answer: B

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NO.5 In a Campus AP deployment, an access point has been provisioned statically with an IP address,
subnet mask, default gateway and Controller IP address. Control Plane Security has been disabled.
Both the Controller and the Access Point are using 6.1 firmware. If a 3rd party firewall is placed in
between the AP and controller, what traffic would need to be allowed for the AP to boot
successfully and broadcast Wireless Networks? (Select two)
A. DHCP
B. PAPI
C. GRE
D. SNMP
E. NTP
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 Which of the following cannot be accomplished from the startup wizard?
A. Basic controller configuration
B. License installation
C. VPN configuration
D. WLAN configuration
E. Firewall Roles
Answer: C

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NO.7 Aruba's recommended best option for authenticating guest users is:
A. Temporary employee account
B. Kerberos
C. Captive Portal
D. Windows logon
E. Email address
Answer: C

Aruba examen   ACMA-6.1   ACMA-6.1

NO.8 802.11n APs operate in which bands? (Select two)
A. 900 MHz
B. 2.4 GHz
C. 2.4 MHz
D. 5 GHz
E. 5 MHz
Answer: B,D

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NO.9 What information is required by an AP in order to boot? (Select three)
A. AP's IP Address, Netmask, Default Gateway
B. AP's Name and Group
C. Aruba Controller's Master IP Address
D. An established NTP connection to the Master Controller
E. Establish an IPSEC tunnel with the Master controller
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.10 Which of the following parameters is not needed by Visual RF Plan in order to Plan APs on a
floor region?
A. AP Type
B. PHY Type
C. Distance to Controller
D. Environment
E. Desired Data Rate
Answer: C

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Nom d'Examen: Adobe (Adobe InDesign CS3 ACE Exam)
Questions et réponses: 125 Q&As

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NO.1 You are importing XML into an existing InDesign document. You want to format the text as efficiently as
possible by using existing InDesign styles. Which feature should you use?
A.Map Tags to Styles
B.Map Styles to Tags
C.Load DTD
D.Merge Content
Correct:A

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button. Using the Pen tool, you draw the curve as shown in Figure 4.1A. You now want
to edit this curve and create the one as shown in Figure 4.1B. What should you do?
A.Use the Selection tool to select the right direction point of the center anchor point. Then, drag the
direction point downward to its new position.
B.Use the Direct Selection tool to select the right direction point of the center anchor point. Then, drag the
direction point downward to its new position.
C.Use the Convert Direction Point tool to select the right direction point of the center anchor point. Then,
drag the direction point downward to its new position.
D.Use the Pen tool to select the right direction point of the center anchor point. Then, drag the direction
point downward to its new position.
Correct:C

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NO.3 Which is included when you export an InDesign file as XML?
A.Only tagged content.
B.Tagged content and its formatting.
C.Only the layout of tagged content.
D.Tagged content, its formatting, and layout.
Correct:A

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NO.4 Which information is displayed in the Info panel when you select a text frame?
A.The height and width of the text frame.
B.The X and Y coordinates of the frame reference point.
C.The character, word, sentence, and paragraph counts of the text in the frame.
D.The color values of the text in the frame.
Correct:A

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NO.5 Which transparency issues can you identify by using the Flattener Preview panel?
A.Precise printing of spot colors.
B.Accurate color.
C.Impact of different blending modes.
D.Rasterized vector text.
Correct:D

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NO.6 Which type of file is generated after you export an InDesign document to Digital Editions?
A.ZIP
B.EPUB
C.RAR
D.EPGT
Correct:B

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NO.7 Which linked files are NOT copied to the package folder when you package an InDesign document?
A.Linked images on the Pasteboard.
B.Linked images in the Slug area.
C.Linked images in the Bleed area.
D.Images on hidden layers.
Correct:A

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NO.8 You use the Position tool to select and resize the content of a graphic frame. You press the Shift key,
select a frame handle, and drag inward. What happens to the frame and its content?
A.The frame is resized proportionately, but the content remains of the same size.
B.The content is resized proportionately, but the frame remains of the same size.
C.Both the frame and the content are resized proportionately.
D.The content or frame cannot be resized by using the Position tool.
Correct:B

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button. You draw a red and a blue circle by using the Ellipse tool. You center the red
circle inside the blue circle as shown in the exhibit What happens when you select both circles and then
select Exclude Overlap from the Pathfinder panel?
A.The two circles merge and become one large, blue circle.
B.The operation cannot be completed because the result would be an empty region.
C.The blue circle disappears, leaving only the red circle.
D.The red circle disappears, leaving a hole in the center of the blue circle. The object that remains is red.
Correct:D

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NO.10 Which element is NOT tagged in XML when you export a layout to XML after auto tagging?
A.Text frames
B.Table cells
C.Footnotes
D.Images
Correct:C

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NO.11 You want to rotate a graphic around its upper-left corner by using the Free Transform tool. What should
you do?
A.In the Control panel, set the Reference Point option for the graphic to the upper-left corner. Then, rotate
the graphic.
B.Drag the center point of the graphic to the upper-left corner by using the Free Transform tool. Then,
rotate the graphic.
C.Place the Free Transform tool at the upper-left corner of the graphic. Then, rotate the graphic.
D.You cannot rotate the graphic around its upper-left corner with the Free Transform tool.
Correct:D

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NO.12 You have placed a PSD file containing editable text into an InDesign document. You want the font used
in the PSD file to remain as vector and to be saved during the Package process. What should you do?
A.Save the image as Photoshop PDF with embedded fonts.
B.Save the image as Photoshop PDF without embedding fonts.
C.Save the image as high resolution TIFF before placing in InDesign.
D.Save the image as a 24-bit PNG file before placing it into InDesign.
Correct:A

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NO.13 You have a database that contains 25 records. Each record contains multiple data fields. You want to
place the data as repeated data in your layout. Which option in the XML Import Options dialog box should
you choose?
A.Cloning
B.Duplicating
C.Copying
D.Merging
Correct:A

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NO.14 You have three objects in your document named Object 1, Object 2, and Object 3. You select Object 1
in your layout and apply a drop shadow to it. With the object selected, you create a new object style and
name it Drop Shadow. You then apply the Drop Shadow style to Object 2 and Object 3. You edit the Drop
Shadow style. Which objects will be modified to reflect the changes to the style?
A.All three objects are modified.
B.Only Object 1 is modified.
C.Only Object 2 and Object 3 are modified.
D.None of the objects are modified.
Correct:C

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NO.15 The visual design of an InDesign layout is different from the XML content being imported. Where will
the XML data be placed in InDesign when you import the data?
A.At the end of the InDesign layout.
B.At the top of the InDesign layout.
C.In the structure pane.
D.In the tagged frames in the InDesign document.
Correct:C

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NO.16 You create a button on a master page, add Rollover and Down states to the button, define the
appearance of the button states, and add a hyperlink destination to the button. Which component will be
missing when you export the InDesign document as a PDF document?
A.The Rollover and Down states of the button.
B.The appearance of the states of the button.
C.All actions performed on the button.
D.The hyperlink destination attached to the button.
Correct:D

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NO.17 What happens to the colors in a document when you apply Simulate Overprint to the document when
exporting it to PDF?
A.Spot colors are converted to Process color equivalents.
B.Process colors are converted to Spot color equivalents.
C.All colors in the document are retained.
D.Overprinted objects are mapped to the same plate.
Correct:A

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NO.18 Which item is exported when you export an InDesign document as XHTML?
A.Graphics created in InDesign
B.Embedded images
C.Bullets and numbered lists
D.Bookmarks
Correct:C

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NO.19 Click the Exhibit button. You use the Polygon tool to create the five-sided star as shown in the exhibit.
You add a 6-point black stroke to the object and set the Join to Miter join. What happens to the points of
this star when you decrease the value of Miter Limit?
A.The points of the star eventually are beveled, or cut off.
B.The points of the star grow longer.
C.The points of the star grow thinner.
D.The points of the star are not changed.
Correct:A

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NO.20 Which is checked as part of the preflight process?
A.Transparency Flattener Preset options
B.Ink Limit
C.Image Scaling Factor
D.Placed InDesign files
Correct:D

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