2013年11月29日星期五

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-117
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g Release 2: SQL Tuning Exam)
Questions et réponses: 125 Q&As

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NO.1 Which four statements are correct about communication between parallel execution process?
A. The number of logical pathways between parallel execution producers and consumers depends
on the degree parallelism.
B. The shared pool can be used for parallel execution messages buffers.
C. The large pool can be used for parallel execution messages buffers.
D. The buffer cache can be used for parallel execution message buffers.
E. Communication between parallel execution processes is never required if a query uses full
partition-wise joins.
F. Each parallel execution process has an additional connection to the parallel execution
coordinator.
Answer: A,B,E,F

Oracle   1Z0-117   1Z0-117

NO.2 Which two types of column filtering may benefit from partition pruning?
A. Equally operates on range-partitioned tables.
B. In-list operators on system-partitioned tables
C. Equality operators on system-partitioned tables
D. Operators on range-partitioned tables
E. Greater than operators on hash-partitioned tables
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 Which two are benefits of In-Memory Parallel Execution?
A. Reduction in the duplication of block images across multiple buffer caches
B. Reduction in CPU utilization
C. Reduction in the number of blocks accessed
D. Reduction in physical I/O for parallel queries
E. Ability to exploit parallel execution servers on remote instance
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 You have enabled DML by issuing: ALTER session ENABLE PARALLEL DML;
The PARELLEL_DEGREE_POLICY initialization parameter is set to AUTO.
Which two options true about DML statements for which parallel execution is requested?
A. Statements for which PDML is requested will execute serially estimated time is less than the
time specified by the PARALLEL_MIN_THRESHOLD parameter.
B. Statements for which PDML is requested will be queued if the number of busy parallel
execution servers greater than PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS parameter.
C. Statements for which PDML is requested will always execute in parallel if estimated execution
in parallel if estimated execution time is greater than the time specified bythe
PARELLEL_MIN_TIME_THRESHOLD parameter.
D. Statements for which PDML is requested will be queued if the number of busy parallel
execution servers is greater than PARELLEL_SERVERS_TARGET parameter.
E. Statement for which PDML is requested will be queued if the number of busy parallel execution
servers is greater than PARELLEL_DEGREE_LIMIT parameter.
Answer: C,D

Oracle   1Z0-117   1Z0-117

NO.5 Which three statements are true about histograms?
A. They capture the distribution of different values in an index for better selectivity estimates.
B. They can be used only with indexed columns.
C. They provide metadata about distribution of and occurrences of values in a table column.
D. They provide improved selectivity estimates in the presence of data skew, resulting in execution
plans with uniform distribution.
E. They help the optimizer in deciding whether to use an index or a full table scan.
F. They help the optimizer to determine the fastest table join order.
Answer: C,E,F

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Oracle meilleur examen 1Z1-591, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 1Z1-591
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Business Intelligence Foundation Suite 11g Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 118 Q&As

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NO.1 Which installation option is used to install into an existing Fusion Middleware Home?
A. Software Only Install
B. Simple Install
C. Enterprise Install
D. Cannot install into an existing Fusion Middleware Home
Answer: A

Oracle   certification 1Z1-591   1Z1-591   1Z1-591

NO.2 When a customer wants to get sales numbers by day, how is data stored in the Star
Schema, if the data is loaded nightly?
A. The lowest level of aggregation
B. The highest level of aggregation
C. Multiple levels of aggregation
D. Independently from aggregation level
Answer: B

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NO.3 The highest sales amount for this year is $10,000. If you create a rank measure for sales
this year and display it on a report, the value will be .
A. $10,000
B. 0
C. 1
D. Year
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z1-591   1Z1-591 examen   certification 1Z1-591

NO.4 Which two components are required for all OBIEE installations?
A. Admin Server
B. RCU Schema
C. Managed Server
D. Node Manager E.
Oracle 11g
Answer: B, E

Oracle   1Z1-591 examen   certification 1Z1-591   1Z1-591 examen

NO.5 The administration tool is the developer's interface to the repository file. It allows the
development of and changes to the metadata repository file. Which statement is true?
A. Changes to the repository can only be carried out in offline mode.
B. Multiple developers can work on one repository at the same time.Results can be
merged later on.
C. All aspects of security are being held in the repository file.
D. Opening the rpd.filein online mode results in performance Issues for the application
user.
Answer: B

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NO.6 What are the two methodologies that are followed within an OBIEE implementation?
A. Do not use prototypes
B. Use an iterative approach
C. Start with a small model and then enhance the repository
D. Start with a big repository and trim it down with the requirements
Answer: B, C

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Code d'Examen: 1Z1-466
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Project Lifecycle Management Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 98 Q&As

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NO.1 Tasks in the Project Execution and Control phase are ongoing. How often they are executed?
A. In each iteration
B. Three times
C. Five times
D. At the beginning of each week
E. As needed
Answer: A

Oracle examen   1Z1-466 examen   1Z1-466

NO.2 What is not true about planning in OUM?
A. OUM has been developed with the intent that the approach for a given project be built up from a
core set of activities.
B. Projects should be tailored down from the full OUM work breakdown structures.
C. OUM takes an iterative and incremental approach to planning a project.
D. Tasks within OUM are considered place holders for work.
Answer: D

Oracle examen   1Z1-466 examen   1Z1-466
Explanation:
Incorrect: Not A:OUM is designed to support a broad range of project types. As such, it must be
flexible andscalable. The appropriate point of balance for a given project will vary based on a
number of project risk and scale factors. The method has been developed with the intent that the
approach for a given project be "built up" from a core set of activities to implement an appropriate
level of discipline, rather than "tailored down".
Not C:OUM recognizes the advantages of an iterative and incremental approach to development
and deployment of information systems. Any of the tasks within OUM may be iterated. Whether or
not to iterate, as well as the number of iterations, varies. Tasks may be iterated to increase quality of
the work products to a desired level, to add sufficient level of detail, or to refine and expand the
work products on the basis of user feedback.

NO.3 Which is the type of closure described as the mechanical an analytical step associated with the
closure of a project or phase?
A. Contractual
B. Typical
C. Intra-business
D. Conventional
Answer: A

Oracle examen   1Z1-466   1Z1-466   1Z1-466 examen   1Z1-466 examen

NO.4 Select the three key project roles as prescribed by OUM Manage.
A. Stakeholder
B. Change Control Board
C. Issue Review Board
D. Project Team
E. Testing Committee
Answer: A,B,D

certification Oracle   certification 1Z1-466   1Z1-466   certification 1Z1-466   1Z1-466 examen
Explanation:
A:Project managers use OUM to make sure they and their stakeholders develop a shared
understanding of what is needed, choose an appropriate architecture, and transfer the ownership of
the end-product to the stakeholders.
B:CCB(Change Control Board)is a review committee that discusses and approves requests for
changes to On Demand customer system configurations. The change requests are fulfilled in the
following ways:
A work guideline is generated by engineering for operations to use and implement.
The changes are included in Oracle Certified Configurations.
D:Project teams to take advantage of this experience by

NO.5 Which is true about OUM Manage?
A. It emphasizes clearly documenting the scope of the project and the exact procedures to
implement changes to this scope.
B. It is not possible to control the project timeline without a detailed project plan.
C. It is necessary to only document the items in the scope.
D. If the project sponsor requires a functional change, the project team must comply with the
request.
Answer: A

Oracle   certification 1Z1-466   1Z1-466 examen
Explanation:
The Manage focus area is organized into 13 processes: Bid Transition (A)Scope Management
Financial Management
Work Management Risk Management Issue and Problem Management Staff Management
Communication Management Quality Management Configuration Management Infrastructure
Management Procurement Management Organizational Change Management
Collectively, these processes form a comprehensive set of tasks required to manage Oracle-based
development and implementation projects. Every project includes most, if not all, of these
processes, whether they are the responsibility of a consulting organization, a client organization, or
a third party.

NO.6 According to the recommended training for this exam, what is the definition of a project?
A. A sequence of tasks with a beginning and an end, bound by time, responses, and desired results
B. Anything for which there is an executed contact
C. A sequence of tasks for there is a Statement work
D. A sequence of tasks with a specified end date
Answer: A

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NO.7 At the end of iteration phase, during Project Execution and Control, which three key tasks
should be conducted?
A. QM.050 Perform Quality Assurance
B. WM.050 ManageApprovals
C. CMM.030 Manage Project Team Communication
D. PKM.020 Conduct Baseline Risk Assessment
E. SM.060 Close Scope management
F. PKM.060 Conduct Post-Production Risk Assessment
G. OCHM.040 Establish Follow-Up process
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 What is not true about risk management in OUM Manage?
A. The project manager should regularly conduct risk assessments.
B. Risks become even more critical during the Project Execution and Control Phase.
C. Particular attention should be paid to risks prior to production cutover.
D. If a baseline risk assessment is done during the Project Startup phase, there are no further risk
assessment required on the project.
Answer: D

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NO.9 What describes the nature of the activities within the Project Execution and Control phase?
A. They are dependent upon one another.
B. They are dependent upon earned value.
C. They are ongoing.
D. They are grouped according to priority.
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z1-466   1Z1-466   1Z1-466

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-060
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Upgrade to Oracle Database 12c)
Questions et réponses: 150 Q&As

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NO.1 Your multitenant container (CDB) containing three pluggable databases (PDBs) is running in
ARCHIVELOG mode. You find that the SYSAUX tablespace is corrupted in the root container.
The steps to recover the tablespace are as follows:
1.Mount the CDB.
2.Close all the PDBs.
3.Open the database.
4.Apply the archive redo logs.
5.Restore the data file.
6.Take the SYSAUX tablespace offline.
7.Place the SYSAUX tablespace offline.
8.Open all the PDBs with RESETLOGS.

NO.2 Which Oracle Database component is audited by default if the unified Auditing option is
enabled?
A. Oracle Data Pump
B. Oracle Recovery Manager (RMAN)
C. Oracle Label Security
D. Oracle Database Vault
E. Oracle Real Application Security
Answer: E

certification Oracle   1Z0-060   1Z0-060 examen   1Z0-060
Explanation:
Type ofUnifiedauditing:
Standard
Fine Grained Audit
XS
Database Vault(not D)
Label Security(not C)
RMAN AUDIT(not B)
Data Pump(not A)
Note:
*Oracle 12c introduces Unified Auditing, which consolidates database audit records
including :-
DDL, DML, DCL
Fine Grained Auditing (DBMS_FGA)
Oracle Database Real Application Security
Oracle Recovery Manager
Oracle Database Vault
Oracle Label Security
Oracle Data Mining
Oracle Data Pump
Oracle SQL*Loader Direct Load

NO.3 Your multitenant container database, CDB1, is running in ARCHIVELOG mode and has two
pluggable databases, HR_PDB and ACCOUNTS_PDB. An RMAN backup exists for the database.
You issue the command to open ACCOUNTS_PDB and find that the USERDATA.DBF data file for the
default permanent tablespace USERDATA belonging to ACCOUNTS_PDB is corrupted.
What should you do before executing the commands to restore and recover the data file in
ACCOUNTS_PDB?
A. Place CDB1 in the mount stage and then the USERDATA tablespace offline in ACCOUNTS_PDB.
B. Place CDB1 in the mount stage and issue the ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE accounts_pdb CLOSE
IMMEDIATE command.
C. Issue the ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE accounts_pdb RESTRICTED command.
D. Take the USERDATA tablespace offlineinACCOUNTS_PDB.
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-060   1Z0-060
Explanation:
*You can take an online tablespace offline so that it is temporarily unavailable for general use. The
rest of the database remains open and available for users to access data. Conversely, you can bring
an offline tablespace online to make the schema objects within the tablespace available to database
users. The database must be open to alter the availability of a tablespace.

NO.4 You are administering a database stored in Automatic Storage Management (ASM). You
use RMAN to back up the database and the MD_BACKUP command to back up the ASM metadata
regularly. You lost an ASM disk group DG1 due to hardware failure.
In which three ways can you re-create the lost disk group and restore the data?
A. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore metadata for an existing disk group by passing the
existing disk group name as an input parameter and use RMAN to restore the data.
B. Use the MKDG command to restore the disk group with the same configuration as the backed-up
disk group and data on the disk group.
C. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore the disk group with the changed disk group
specification, failure group specification, name, and other attributes and use RMAN to restore the
data.
D. Use the MKDG command to restore the disk group with the same configuration as the backed-up
disk group name and same set of disks and failure group configuration, and use RMAN to restore
the data.
E. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore both the metadata and data for the failed disk group.
F. Use the MKDG command to add a new disk group DG1 with the same or different specifications
for failure group and other attributes and use RMAN to restore the data.
Answer: C,E,F

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-060   1Z0-060   certification 1Z0-060
Explanation:
Note:
*The md_restore command allows you to restore a disk group from the metadata created
by the md_backup command.
/md_restore Command
Purpose
This command restores a disk group backup using various options that are described in
this section.
/In the restore mode md_restore, it re-create the disk group based on the backup file with
all user-defined templates with the exact configuration as the backuped disk group. There
are several options when restore the disk group
full - re-create the disk group with the exact configuration
nodg - Restores metadata in an existing disk group provided as an input parameter
newdg - Change the configuration like failure group, disk group name, etc..
*The MD_BACKUP command creates a backup file containing metadata for one or more
disk groups. By default all the mounted disk groups are included in the backup file which is
saved in the current working directory. If the name of the backup file is not specified, ASM names
the file AMBR_BACKUP_INTERMEDIATE_FILE.

NO.5 Which statement is true about Oracle Net Listener?
A. It acts as the listening endpoint for the Oracle database instance for all local and non-local user
connections.
B. A single listener can service only one database instance and multiple remote client connections.
C. Service registration with the listener is performed by the process monitor (PMON) process of
each database instance.
D. The listener.ora configuration file must be configured with one or more listening protocol
addresses to allow remote users to connect to a database instance.
E. The listener.ora configuration file must be located in the ORACLE_HOME/network/admin directly.
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-060   1Z0-060   certification 1Z0-060
Explanation:
Supported services, that is, the services to which the listener forwards client
requests, can be configured in the listener.ora file or this information can be dynamically
registered with the listener. This dynamic registration feature is called service registration.
The registration is performed by the PMON process-an instance background process-of
each database instance that has the necessary configuration in the database initialization
parameter file. Dynamic service registration does not require any configuration in the
listener.ora file.
Incorrect:
Not B:Service registration reduces the need for the SID_LIST_listener_name parameter
setting, which specifies information about the databases served by the listener, in the
listener.ora file.
Note:
*Oracle Net Listener is a separate process that runs on the database server computer. It
receives incoming client connection requests and manages the traffic of these requests to
the database server.
*A remote listener is a listener residing on one computer that redirects connections to a
database instance on another computer. Remote listeners are typically used in an Oracle
Real Application Clusters (Oracle RAC) environment. You can configure registration to
remote listeners, such as in the case of Oracle RAC, for dedicated server or shared server
environments.

NO.6 Open the database with RESETLOGS.

NO.7 You plan to use the In Database Archiving feature of Oracle Database 12c, and store rows that
are inactive for over three months, in Hybrid Columnar Compressed (HCC) format.
Which three storage options support the use of HCC?
A. ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of Exadata Grid Disks.
B. ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of LUNS on any Storage Area Network array
C. ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of any zero padded NFS-mounted files
D. Database files stored in ZFS and accessed using conventional NFS mounts.
E. Database files stored in ZFS and accessed using the Oracle Direct NFS feature
F. Database files stored in any file system and accessed using the Oracle Direct NFS feature
G. ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of LUNs on Pillar Axiom Storage arrays
Answer: A,E,G

Oracle   1Z0-060   1Z0-060   1Z0-060
Explanation:
HCC requires the use of Oracle Storage - Exadata(A), Pillar Axiom(G)or Sun ZFS Storage Appliance
(ZFSSA).
Note: *Hybrid Columnar Compression, initially only available on Exadata, has been extended to
supportPillar Axiom and Sun ZFS Storage Appliance (ZFSSA) storage when used with Oracle
Database Enterprise Edition 11.2.0.3 and above *Oracle offers the ability to manage NFS using a
feature called Oracle Direct NFS (dNFS). Oracle Direct NFS implements NFS V3 protocol within the
Oracle database kernel itself. Oracle Direct NFS client overcomes many of the challenges associated
with using NFS with the Oracle Database with simple configuration, betterperformance than
traditional NFS clients, and offers consistent configuration across platforms.

NO.8 Your multitenant container (CDB) contains two pluggable databases(PDB), HR_PDB and
ACCOUNTS_PDB, both of which use the CDB tablespace. The temp file is called temp01.tmp.
A user issues a query on a table on one of the PDBs and receives the following error:
ERROR at line 1:
ORA-01565: error in identifying file '/u01 /app/oracle/oradata/CDB1 /temp01.tmp'
ORA-27037: unable to obtain file status
Identify two ways to rectify the error.
A. Add a new temp file to the temporary tablespace and drop the temp file that that produced the
error.
B. Shut down the database instance, restore the temp01.tmp file from the backup, and then restart
the database.
C. Take the temporary tablespace offline, recover the missing temp file by applying redo logs, and
then bring the temporary tablespace online.
D. Shutdown the database instance, restore and recover the temp file from the backup, and then
open the database with RESETLOGS.
E. Shut down the database instance and then restart the CDB and PDBs.
Answer: C,E

Oracle examen   1Z0-060   certification 1Z0-060   certification 1Z0-060
Explanation:
* Because temp files cannot be backed up and because no redo is ever generated for them, RMAN
never restores or recovers temp files. RMAN does track the names of temp files, but only so that it
can automatically re-create them when needed.
*If you use RMAN in a Data Guard environment, then RMAN transparently converts primary control
files to standby control files and vice versa. RMAN automatically updates file names for data files,
online redo logs, standby redo logs, and temp files when you issue RESTORE and RECOVER.

NO.9 You notice that the performance of your production 24 /7 Oracle database significantly
degraded. Sometimes you are not able to connect to the instance because it hangs. You do not want
to restart the database instance.
How can you detect the cause of the degraded performance?
A. Enable Memory Access Mode, which reads performance data from SGA.
B. Use emergency monitoring to fetch data directly from SGA analysis.
C. Run Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) to fetch information from the latest
Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshots.
D. Use Active Session History (ASH) data and hang analysis in regular performance monitoring.
E. Run ADDM in diagnostic mode.
Answer: C

Oracle examen   1Z0-060   1Z0-060 examen   certification 1Z0-060   1Z0-060 examen
Explanation:
*In most cases, ADDM output should be the first place that a DBA looks when notified of a
performance problem. *Performance degradation of the database occurs when your database was
performing optimally in the past, such as 6 months ago, but has gradually degraded to a point
where it becomes noticeable to the users. The Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) Compare
Periods report enables you to compare database performance between two periods of time.
While an AWR report shows AWR data between two snapshots (or two points in time), the AWR
Compare Periods report shows the difference between two periods (or two AWR reports with a
total of four snapshots). Using the AWR Compare Periods report helps you to identify detailed
performance attributes and configuration settings that differ between two time periods.
Reference:Resolving Performance Degradation Over Time

NO.10 Execute the command SHUTDOWN ABORT.
Which option identifies the correct sequence to recover the SYSAUX tablespace?
A. 6, 5, 4, 7
B. 10, 1, 2, 5, 8
C. 10, 1, 2, 5, 4, 9, 8
D. 10, 1, 5, 8, 10
Answer: C

Oracle examen   1Z0-060   1Z0-060   certification 1Z0-060   1Z0-060   1Z0-060 examen
Explanation:
* Example:
While evaluating the 12c beta3 I was not able to do the recover while testing "all pdb files
lost".
Cannot close the pdb as the system datafile was missing...
So only option to recover was:
Shutdown cdb(10)
startup mount;(1)
restore pluggable database
recover pluggable databsae
alter database open;
alter pluggable database name open;
Oracle support says: You should be able to close the pdb and restore/recover the system
tablespace of PDB.
*Open the database with the RESETLOGS option after finishing recovery: SQL> ALTER DATABASE
OPEN RESETLOGS;
9. Which three are direct benefits of the multiprocess, multithreaded architecture of Oracle
Database 12c when it is enabled?
A. Reduced logical I/O
B. Reduced virtual memory utilization
C. Improved parallel Execution performance
D. Improved Serial Execution performance
E. Reduced physical I/O
F. Reduced CPU utilization
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-060   certification 1Z0-060   1Z0-060   certification 1Z0-060
Explanation:
*Multiprocess and Multithreaded Oracle Database Systems
Multiprocess Oracle Database (also called multiuser Oracle Database) uses several processes to run
different parts of the Oracle Database code and additional Oracle processes for the users-either one
process for each connected user or one or more processes shared by multiple users. Most databases
are multiuser because a primary advantage of a database is managing data needed by multiple
users simultaneously.
Each process in a database instance performs a specific job. By dividing the work of the database
and applications into several processes, multiple users and applications can connect to an instance
simultaneously while the system gives good performance.
*In previous releases, Oracle processes did not run as threads on UNIX and Linux systems. Starting
in Oracle Database 12c, the multithreaded Oracle Database model enables Oracle processes to
execute as operating system threads in separate address spaces.
10. In order to exploit some new storage tiers that have been provisioned by a storage
administrator, the partitions of a large heap table must be moved to other tablespaces in your
Oracle 12c database?
Both local and global partitioned B-tree Indexes are defined on the table.
A high volume of transactions access the table during the day and a medium volume of transactions
access it at night and during weekends.
Minimal disrupt ion to availability is required.
Which three statements are true about this requirement?
A. The partitions can be moved online to new tablespaces.
B. Global indexes must be rebuilt manually after moving the partitions.
C. The partitions can be compressed in the same tablespaces.
D. The partitions can be compressed in the new tablespaces.
E. Local indexes must be rebuilt manually after moving the partitions.
Answer: A,B,D

Oracle examen   1Z0-060   1Z0-060   1Z0-060   1Z0-060
Explanation:
A:You can create and rebuild indexes online. Therefore, you can update base tables at the same
time you are building or rebuilding indexes on that table. You can perform DML operations while
the index build is taking place, but DDL operations are not allowed. Parallel execution is not
supported when creating or rebuilding an index online.
B: Note: *Transporting and Attaching Partitions for Data Warehousing Typical enterprise data
warehouses contain one or more large fact tables. These fact tables can be partitioned by date,
making the enterprise data warehouse a historical database. You can build indexes to speed up star
queries. Oracle recommends that you build local indexes for such historically partitioned tables to
avoid rebuilding global indexes every time you drop the oldest partition from the historical database.
D:Moving (Rebuilding) Index-Organized Tables Because index-organized tables are primarily stored
in a B-tree index, you can encounter fragmentation as a consequence of incremental updates.
However, you can use the ALTER TABLE...MOVE statement to rebuild the index and reduce this
fragmentation.

NO.11 Which two statements are true about the use of the procedures listed in the
v$sysaux_occupants.move_procedure column?
A. The procedure may be used for some components to relocate component data to the SYSAUX
tablespace from its current tablespace.
B. The procedure may be used for some components to relocate component data from the SYSAUX
tablespace to another tablespace.
C. All the components may be moved into SYSAUX tablespace.
D. All the components may be moved from the SYSAUX tablespace.
Answer: B,D

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-060   1Z0-060
Explanation:
V$SYSAUX_OCCUPANTS displays SYSAUX tablespace occupant information.
MOVE_PROCEDURE:Name of the move procedure; null if not applicable
For example, the tables and indexes that were previously owned by the system user can now be
specified for a SYSAUX tablespace. You can query the v$sysaux_occupants view to find the exact
components stored within the SYSAUX tablespace.

NO.12 Examine the followingcommands forredefininga table withVirtual Private Database(VPD)
policies:
Which two statements are true about redefining the table?
A. All the triggers for the table are disabled without changing any of the column names or column
types in the table.
B. The primary key constraint on the EMPLOYEES table is disabled during redefinition.
C. VPD policies are copied from the original table to the new table during online redefinition.
D. You must copy the VPD policies manually from the original table to the new table during online
redefinition.
Answer: B,C

Oracle examen   1Z0-060   1Z0-060   1Z0-060 examen   1Z0-060 examen
Explanation:
C (not D):CONS_VPD_AUTO Used to indicate to copy VPD policies automatically
*DBMS_RLS.ADD_POLICY /The DBMS_RLS package contains the fine-grained access control
administrative interface, which is used to implement Virtual Private Database (VPD).DBMS_RLS is
available with the Enterprise Edition only.
Note: *CONS_USE_PK and CONS_USE_ROWID are constants used as input to the "options_flag"
parameter in both the START_REDEF_TABLE Procedure and CAN_REDEF_TABLE Procedure.
CONS_USE_ROWID is used to indicate that the redefinition should be done using rowids while
CONS_USE_PK implies that the redefinition should be done using primary keys or pseudo-primary
keys (which are unique keys with all component columns having NOT NULL constraints).
*DBMS_REDEFINITION.START_REDEF_TABLE
To achieve online redefinition, incrementally maintainable local materialized views are used. These
logs keep track of the changes to the master tables and are used by the materialized views during
refresh synchronization.
*START_REDEF_TABLE Procedure Prior to calling this procedure, you must manually create an empty
interim table (in the same schema as the table to be redefined) with the desired attributes of the
post-redefinition table, and then call this procedure to initiate the redefinition.

NO.13 What are three purposes of the RMAN "FROM" clause?
A. to support PUSH-based active database duplication
B. to support synchronization of a standby database with the primary database in a Data
environment
C. To support PULL-based active database duplication
D. To support file restores over the network in a Data Guard environment
E. To support file recovery over the network in a Data Guard environment
Answer: B,C,E

certification Oracle   certification 1Z0-060   1Z0-060   1Z0-060
Explanation:
E:
*With a control file autobackup, RMAN can recover the database even if the current
control file, recovery catalog, and server parameter file are inaccessible.
*RMAN uses a recovery catalog to track filenames for all database files in a Data Guard
environment. A recovery catalog is a database schema used by RMAN to store metadata
about one or more Oracle databases. The catalog also records where the online redo logs,
standby redo logs, tempfiles, archived redo logs, backup sets, and image copies are
created.

NO.14 Which three are true about the large poolfor anOracle database instance that supports
shared server connections?
A. Allocates memory for RMAN backup and restore operations
B. Allocates memory for shared and private SQL areas
C. Contains a cursor area for storing runtime information about cursors
D. Contains stack space
E. Contains a hash area performing hash joins of tables
Answer: A,B,C

Oracle   1Z0-060   1Z0-060
Explanation:
The large pool can provide large memory allocations for the following:
/(B)UGA(User Global Area)for the shared server and the Oracle XA interface (used where
transactions interact with multiple databases)
/Message buffers used in the parallel execution of statements
/(A)Buffers for Recovery Manager (RMAN) I/O slaves
Note:
*large pool
Optional area in the SGA that provides large memory allocations for backup and restore
operations, I/O server processes, and session memory for the shared server and Oracle
XA.
*Oracle XA
An external interface that allows global transactions to be coordinated by a transaction
manager other than Oracle Database.
*UGA
User global area. Session memory that stores session variables, such as logon
information, and can also contain the OLAP pool.
*Configuring the Large Pool
Unlike the shared pool, the large pool does not have an LRU list(not D). Oracle Database
does not attempt to age objects out of the large pool. Consider configuring a large pool if
the database instance uses any of the following Oracle Database features:
*Shared server
In a shared server architecture, the session memory for each client process is included in
the shared pool.
*Parallel query
Parallel query uses shared pool memory to cache parallel execution message buffers.
*Recovery Manager
Recovery Manager (RMAN) uses the shared pool to cache I/O buffers during backup and restore
operations. For I/O server processes, backup, and restore operations, Oracle Database allocates
buffers that are a few hundred kilobytes in size.

NO.15 In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable databases (PDB), users
complain about performance degradation.
How does real-time Automatic database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) check performance
degradation and provide solutions?
A. It collects data from SGA and compares it with a preserved snapshot.
B. It collects data from SGA, analyzes it, and provides a report.
C. It collects data from SGA and compares it with the latest snapshot.
D. It collects data from both SGA and PGA, analyzes it, and provides a report.
Answer: B

Oracle examen   1Z0-060   1Z0-060 examen   certification 1Z0-060   1Z0-060 examen   1Z0-060
Explanation:
Note: *The multitenant architecture enables an Oracle database to function as a multitenant
container database (CDB) that includes zero, one, or many customer-created pluggable databases
(PDBs). A PDB is a portable collection of schemas, schema objects, and nonschema objects that
appears to an Oracle Net client as a non-CDB. All Oracle databases before Oracle Database 12c were
non-CDBs. *The System Global Area (SGA) is a group of shared memory areas that are dedicated to
an Oracle "instance" (an instance is your database programs and RAM).
*The PGA (Program or Process Global Area) is a memory area (RAM) that stores data and control
information for a single process.

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Code d'Examen: UM0-411
Nom d'Examen: OMG (Omg OCRES - Advanced Exam)
Questions et réponses: 180 Q&As

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NO.1 What is one difference between service level software and application level software?
A. Service level software always provides real-time guarantees on execution time, while application level
software does not.
B. Application level software always forms the core "building bricks" of software systems while service
level software is always portable across different hardware.
C. Application level software provides the functionality and behavior required of the system while service
level software provides application-independent functionality.
D. Service level software always provides the same set of operations regardless of environment, while
application level software provide a consistent programming interface.
Answer: C

OMG   UM0-411   UM0-411 examen

NO.2 What is the difference between static and dynamic variables?
A. Static variables are used to save memory space in lieu of dynamic variables.
B. Static variables have global visibility while dynamic variables are restricted to individual components.
C. Static variables have a set value for the lifetime of the program, while dynamic variables can change
value as determined by the program.
D. Static variables exist for as long as the program runs, while dynamic variables are created and
destroyed by the program and scoping rules.
Answer: D

OMG examen   UM0-411   UM0-411

NO.3 Which is an example of a performance modeling tool?
A. spreadsheet
B. discrete event simulator
C. transaction rate analyzer
D. software configuration manager
Answer: B

OMG   certification UM0-411   UM0-411   certification UM0-411   UM0-411

NO.4 For which schedule is the task priority computed using both the tasks execution time and its deadline?
A. Least Laxity First
B. Shortest Job First
C. Deadline Monotonic
D. Shortest Remaining Time
Answer:A

OMG examen   UM0-411   UM0-411   UM0-411

NO.5 What are two characteristics of manual transformation in the MDA? (Choose two.)
A. It requires a record of the manual transformation.
B. It is a radical departure from traditional software design methods.
C. It makes an explicit distinction between a platform independent model and the transformed platform
specific model.
D. It adds very little to standard software design practices in use today, but provides a method to
incorporate legacy software under the MDA name.
Answer:AC

OMG   certification UM0-411   UM0-411

NO.6 Which statement is true about an interoperability transformation?
A. It is a transformation applied to interoperability connectors.
B. It includes transformation specifications for two different platforms.
C. It is a transformation that distributes a PSM to a multiprocessor system.
D. It transforms two PIMs to a PSM that is interoperable on a single platform.
Answer: B

OMG   UM0-411   UM0-411   UM0-411

NO.7 A Rate Monotonic Schedule sets task priorities according to what?
A. task laxity
B. task deadline
C. system mode
D. length of a task's period
Answer: D

certification OMG   UM0-411   UM0-411 examen   UM0-411 examen

NO.8 Which statement is true about the feasibility of a Rate Monotonic Schedule?
A. It CANNOT be determined precisely.
B. It can be determined only for the highest priority task.
C. It can be determined for any set of task deadlines with bounded execution times.
D. It can be determined for any number of periodic tasks with bounded execution times.
Answer: D

certification OMG   UM0-411   UM0-411 examen   certification UM0-411   UM0-411

NO.9 Which two most accurately describe the added value of using MDA based transformations? (Choose
two.)
A. PIM/PSM distinction
B. PIM/PSM template usage
C. Transformation recording
D. Transformation verification
E. Transformation automation
Answer:AC

OMG   certification UM0-411   UM0-411   UM0-411   certification UM0-411

NO.10 Which statement is NOT true about a PSM?
A. It may abstract away some of the platform details
B. It always includes a detailed model of the platform.
C. It must always be able to produce an implementation.
D. It must always include all details necessary to produce an implementation.
Answer: B

OMG   UM0-411   UM0-411 examen   UM0-411   UM0-411   UM0-411

NO.11 Programs devised using functional structuring are based on what?
A. abstract machines organized in layers
B. data processed by individual statements
C. functions operating on shared structures
D. independent functions organized in parallel
Answer:A

OMG examen   UM0-411 examen   UM0-411   UM0-411   UM0-411 examen

NO.12 Earliest deadline scheduling is a form of what?
A. preemptive static scheduling
B. deadline monotonic scheduling
C. non-preemptive static scheduling
D. priority-based preemptive dynamic scheduling
Answer: D

OMG   UM0-411   UM0-411

NO.13 What must include all of the information needed to construct a system and to put it into operation?
A. Platform
B. Viewpoint
C. Implementation
D. Platform Specific Model
Answer: C

OMG   UM0-411   UM0-411 examen

NO.14 How does a pure tree decomposition differ from a general hierarchical decomposition?
A. Different modules share standard subroutines.
B. Leaf-functions are shared between many different modules.
C. 'Building-brick' functions are NOT shared between modules.
D. System branch prediction can be used to increase performance.
Answer: C

OMG   UM0-411 examen   UM0-411

NO.15 What transformation method is a component-based product line architecture most likely to use?
A. QVT
B. Manual
C. Patterns
D. Factoring
E. Automatic
Answer: E

OMG examen   certification UM0-411   UM0-411 examen   certification UM0-411   UM0-411 examen

NO.16 What does performance engineering start with?
A. creating a predictable system architecture
B. choosing an appropriately predictable scheduling policy
C. defining the performance requirements for the target system
D. defining a set of performance tests to determine that requirements will be met
Answer: C

OMG   UM0-411   UM0-411   UM0-411   UM0-411

NO.17 Which statement is true about a PIM?
A. It is always an application-level model.
B. It is sometimes called a domain model.
C. It may be transformed to a PSM using cascaded transformations.
D. It is a set of subsystems that provides functionality through interfaces.
Answer: C

OMG examen   certification UM0-411   certification UM0-411   UM0-411   UM0-411 examen

NO.18 Which two statements correctly describe the MDA Pattern? (Choose two.)
A. It includes a PIM that is independent of all platforms.
B. A PIM on one context may be a PSM in another context.
C. It includes a PIM that is independent of a specific class of platforms.
D. Once transformed into a PSM, a model will always be viewed as a PSM.
Answer: BC

certification OMG   UM0-411   UM0-411   UM0-411   certification UM0-411

NO.19 A 'strongly typed' programming language is subject to which two rules? (Choose two.)
A. Every data object must belong to one unique type.
B. All data objects are strongly associated to a local scope.
C. Data object names must be in strong Hungarian notation.
D. Data objects must be of the same type during assignments unless actively overridden.
Answer:AD

OMG examen   certification UM0-411   UM0-411   certification UM0-411   UM0-411

NO.20 Creating rate groups can produce which effect?
A. reducing processor load variations
B. ensuring that time constraints are met
C. decreasing the overhead of task dispatch
D. simplifying system maintainability when requirements change
Answer: C

OMG   UM0-411   UM0-411

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Code d'Examen: 050-682
Nom d'Examen: Novell (Advanced Novell Network Management )
Questions et réponses: 145 Q&As

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NO.1 .There are problems when starting your NetWare 6 server.
Which command helps to identify at which point modules are loading during the server
startup?
A. LIST
B. CONFIG
C. STARTUP
D. MODULES
E. LIST STAGE
Answer: E

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NO.2 .You are working in a pure IP environment and the workstation is not
communicating with the server.
Which are some valid troubleshooting steps that can be executed on the workstation to
help identify the problem? (Choose three)
A. Ping the server.
B. Use TRACERT.
C. Verify that DSTRACE is not running.
D. Use CONFIG to verify that the network board is bound.
E. Verify the workstation IP address with the IPCONFIG command.
F. RUN DSTRACE to verify there are no DS communication issues between the
workstation and server.
Answer: A, B, E

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NO.3 You just added a second hard drive to your RAID system. Click the area of the graphic
that redistributes data across all RAID devices, including the new hard drive.
Answer:
Explanation: Click on Restripe
page 6-9 Restriping redistributes data across all Raid devices, including the new hard
drive.

NO.4 Which abend is almost always memory related?
A. Page fault
B. Invalid Opcode
C. Non Maskable Interrupt
D. General Protection Processor Exception
E. Ate Poison Pill in SbdWriteNode Tick given by some other node.
Answer: C

Novell examen   certification 050-682   certification 050-682   050-682

NO.5 .DRAG DROP
Listed are the SET parameters used that instruct the server how to respond to an
abend and the description for each SET parameter.
Drag the parameter to the appropriate description.
Answer:

NO.6 .Which statements are true about the source server when doing a server migration to
NetWare 6? (Choose two)
A. The source server must be running IP.
B. Any NetWare 3.x server and higher can be migrated to NetWare 6.
C. The source server's volumes must be the same size as the destination server's volumes.
D. If the source server is NetWare 4, the volumes must have long name space support
added.
E. The person performing the migration must have the Supervisor right to the source
server's file system.
Answer: D, E

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NO.7 When checking the state of a cluster resource, what color will the resource appear as, if it
is unknown?
A. Red
B. Gray
C. Green
D. Yellow
E. Blank (or no color)
Answer: B

Novell   050-682   050-682   050-682 examen

NO.8 .If an object is missing a mandatory attribute, how will this object be displayed in
ConsoleOne?
A. As a grayed-out object.
B. As a black-and-white object.
C. As a mark in a circle.
D. As a mar in a square.
E. As two numbers with a dash between them (eg. 9-6).
Answer: C

certification Novell   050-682 examen   050-682 examen   050-682

NO.9 .When performing a migration to a NetWare 6 server, which are valid statements
regarding copying volumes? (Choose two)
A. The volumes cannot be compressed.
B. The source and destination server's volumes must be NSS.
C. You do not need to copy all of the volumes at the same time.
D. The source and destination server's volume size must be the same.
E. The source and destination server's volume names must be the same.
Answer: C, E

Novell   050-682   050-682 examen   050-682   certification 050-682

NO.10 In a NCS environment, a resource state of ALERT has been placed on a resource.
What is a reason that a resource would be in an ALERT state?
A. The resource is shut down or in an inactive state.
B. The resource is unloading from the server it was running on.
C. The resource is not running and requires administrator intervention.
D. There isn't an assigned node up that the resource can be loaded on.
E. The Start, Failover, or Failback mode for the resource has been set to manual.
Answer: E

Novell   certification 050-682   050-682   050-682

NO.11 .An iFolder user has discovered that new files are not being synchronized to his
server, while at the same time changes to existing files are being synchronized.
What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The conflict bin is too small.
B. Corrupted file maps are dirmaps.
C. The computer does not have sync rights.
D. The server does not have enough disk space.
Answer: B

Novell   050-682   050-682

NO.12 .You have just completed installing NCS and are now going to create a shared disk
partition.
Which utility is used to create a shared disk partition?
A. iMonitor
B. iManager
C. ConsoleOne
D. Server Manager
E. NWCONFIG.NLM
Answer: C

Novell   050-682   050-682   certification 050-682   050-682 examen   050-682

NO.13 .Shown are properties of the DACLUSTER object. There are applications in the
cluster that you want to load before others.
Click on the tab that will allow you to specify the order that applications load within
the cluster.
Answer:

NO.14 .What happens during the Finish eDirectory Migration stage of a server migration to
NetWare 6 process? (Choose two)
A. The NICI files are copied.
B. The licenses are installed.
C. The volume objects are updated.
D. The destination server is restarted.
E. The file trustee assignment are restored.
Answer: C, E

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NO.15 Which is a useful troubleshooting step if a server is not communicating?
A. Verify that cache buffers are over 20%.
B. Verify that the server is not out of packet receive buffers.
C. Verify that the DOS=HIGH command is not in CONFIG.SYS.
D. Remove memory managers from loading in AUTOEXEC.NCF.
Answer: B

certification Novell   050-682   050-682   certification 050-682   050-682

NO.16 Using the UAL licensing model, where is it recommended to install user license if the
server object resides in the FLIGHTOPS.DEL.DIGITALAIR container and the user
objects reside in the CUSTSERV.DEL.DIGITALAIR container?
A. In any container.
B. In the Security container.
C. In the DIGITALAIR container.
D. In the CUSTSERV.DEL.DIGITALAIR container.
E. In the CUSTSERV.DEL.DIGITALAIR or DEL.DIGITALAIR containers.
F. In the FLIGHTOPS.DEL.DIGITALAIR or DEL.DIGITALAIR containers.
Answer: E

Novell   050-682   certification 050-682   050-682 examen

NO.17 .You want to modify your NCS environment by changing node assignment to
resource using ConsoleOne.
Which object's properties page allows you to change node assignments?
A. Any node object
B. The cluster object
C. The master node object
D. The Cluster ADMIN object
E. Any cluster-enabled resource or volume object
Answer: B

Novell   certification 050-682   050-682

NO.18 Which are tools you can use at the server console prompt to help troubleshoot IP
problems? (Choose two)
A. PING
B. TCPCON
C. NETSTAT
D. TRACERT
E. IPCONFIG
Answer: A, B

certification Novell   050-682   certification 050-682

NO.19 Which RAID levels can be implemented with NSS? (Choose two)
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5
G. 6
H. 7
Answer: A,B

Novell   050-682 examen   certification 050-682   050-682 examen

NO.20 After a NetWare 6 server migration, you have noticed that device drivers are not
loading. These drivers need to be placed in the directory where SERVER.EXE
resides.
Where can you copy these drivers from?
A. C:\DRIVERS
B. SYS:SYSTEM
C. STS:ETC\DRIVERS
D. SYS:SYSTEM\DRIVERS
E. C:\NWSERVER\DRIVERS
Answer: E

Novell   050-682   050-682   050-682 examen

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Code d'Examen: 50-683
Nom d'Examen: Novell (Desktop Management with ZENworks for )
Questions et réponses: 129 Q&As

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NO.1 For an application to be distributed to a workstation, what defines the
information required to distribute it?
A. The application object
B. The application's .INI file
C. The application container
D. Novell application launcher (NAL)
Answer:A

Novell examen   50-683   50-683

NO.2 Which object can a service location package be associated with? (Choose one)
A. User object
B. Root object
C. Group object
D. Server object
E. Country object
F. Workstation object
G. Organizational unit object
Answer:G

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NO.3 Which object can you associate with a workstation package?
A. User
B. Printer
C. Security
D. Container
E. Computer
Answer:D

Novell   50-683   50-683

NO.4 Which server package policy should you use to automatically place and name
workstation objects in the
eDirectory tree?
A. Rollup policy
B. Wake-on-LAN policy
C. Imaging server policy
D. Workstation import policy
Answer:D

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NO.5 Which policy can have multiple instances for the same user policy package?
A. Novell iPrint policy
B. Remote control policy
C. User extensible policy
D. Scheduled action policy
E. Dynamic local user policy
Answer:D

Novell   50-683   50-683   50-683 examen

NO.6 What is the NetWare console command to verify that automatic workstation import
(AWI) is working
correctly?
A. JAVA -SHOW
B. ZENWSIMPORT
C. JAVA -ZENWSIMPORT
D. SHOW -ZENWSIMPORT
Answer:A

Novell   50-683   50-683

NO.7 What is the benefit of implementing a search policy?
A. It allows you to search eDirectory for a specified user.
B. It limits how fat up the tree ZENworks looks for effective polices.
C. It allows outdated workstations to be easily located and removed.
D. It allows you to monitor events from outside the organization's network.
Answer:B

Novell   50-683 examen   50-683

NO.8 DRAG DROP
Rank the default precedence of each policy package in order, from highest to
lowest.
Answer:

NO.9 You created a server policy package and associated it with a server object.
Where are the polices applied?
A. To all ZENworks for Desktops back-end servers-
B. To all objects in the tree that are valid types for the package.
C. To all objects on the server that are valid types for the package.
D. To all objects in the container that are valid types for the package.
Answer:C

Novell   50-683 examen   50-683   50-683

NO.10 Which is true concerning ZENworks for Desktop 4 application folders? (Choose
three)
A. They can be created as a template object.
B. They can be created using an application object.
C. They can be created as an application folder object.
D. They are used to organize and distribute workstation images.
E. They are used to organize the applications you distribute to users through
Novell application launcher
(NAL).
Answer:B, C, E

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NO.11 You have a critical application that is being deployed to workstations and you
want to receive notification
if any workstation fails to install the application. You also want a list of
workstations that the application
is delivered to.
Which service location package policies should you configure to receive this
information? (Choose two)
A. XSLT policy
B. SMTP host policy
C. SNMP trap targets policy
D. ZENworks database policy
Answer:B, C

Novell   50-683 examen   50-683   50-683

NO.12 You are using ZENworks for Desktop 4.
Which HTML file must be configured for remote users to access applications through
their browsers?
A. APPS
B. DOCS
C. INDEX
D. MYAPPS
E. MYDOCS
Answer:D

Novell   50-683   certification 50-683   50-683   50-683 examen

NO.13 Which ZENworks for Desktops 4 (ZfD4) policies are cumulative policies? (Choose
two)
A. Windows Group policies
B. Dynamic Local User polices
C. Computer Extensible policies
D. Windows Desktop Preferences polices
Answer:A, C

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NO.14 Which of the following describes the ZENworks for Desktop 4 application browser?
A. A distributed application icon that is displayed in the system tray.
B. A web browser view that displays icons for distributed applications.
C. A standalone window that displays icons for distributed applications.
D. A distributed application icon that is displayed on the Windows desktop.
Answer:C

Novell examen   50-683 examen   50-683 examen   50-683
Not B.Its not a web application

NO.15 Which tool can you use to remotely manage a workstation?
A. NWAdmin
B. RCONJ.EXE
C. DESKTOP4.EXE
D. Application explorer/launcher
E. The remote management agent
Answer:C

Novell   50-683   50-683 examen   50-683 examen

NO.16 When configuring a Workstation package, policies are available under 6 categories.
General, Win95-98,
WinNT-2000-XP, WinNT, Win2000, and WinXP.
What policies can be configured under the General polices category? (Choose two)
A. Help Desk
B. Client Config
C. Remote Control
D. Workstation Imaging
E. Computer Extensible
Answer:C, D

Novell examen   50-683   50-683

NO.17 Which remote management utility can you use to run applications on the managed
workstation from the
administrator workstation?
A. Diagnostics
B. File Transfer
C. Remote View
D. Remote Execute
E. Remote Wake Up
Answer:D

Novell   50-683   certification 50-683

NO.18 Which configurations can be easily set using policies in the user package? (Choose
two)
A. Deploying applications across various LAN locations.
B. Tracking various types of hardware used in your organization.
C. Providing a full-access workstation environment for administrators.
D. Maintaining a workstation environment for users with special needs.
Answer:C, D

Novell examen   50-683   certification 50-683   certification 50-683   50-683

NO.19 The ZENworks for Desktop 4 web services architecture eliminates the need for which
component?
A. Firewall
B. Novell Client
C. ZENworks middle tier
D. ZENworks back-end server
Answer:B

certification Novell   50-683   50-683 examen

NO.20 What can the user package Novell iPrint policy do? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Set a printer as a default printer.
B. Install NIPP.EXE on the workstation.
C. Configure a printer for a workstation.
D. Install the iPrint client on a workstation.
Answer:A, D

Novell   50-683   50-683 examen   certification 50-683   certification 50-683

NO.21 Which utility do you use to access the Remote Operator Wizard?
A. StartX
B. iMonitor
C. iManager
D. ConsoleOne
Answer:D

Novell   50-683   50-683   50-683 examen

NO.22 Which eDirectory design guidelines for NetWare should you follow when implementing
ZENworks for
Desktops? (Choose two)
A. Tier design guidelines
B. Tree design guidelines
C. Policy design guidelines
D. Server design guidelines
E. Replica design guidelines
Answer:B, E

certification Novell   50-683 examen   50-683   50-683   50-683   50-683

NO.23 To configure user-defined policies using the ADM files for workstation objects,
which policy do you configure?
A. Remote control
B. Scheduled action
C. Computer extensible
D. Workstation imaging
E. ZENworks for Desktops management agent
Answer:C

Novell examen   certification 50-683   50-683 examen   50-683

NO.24 In relation to a Windows group policy, which feature allows you to change the
policy preference to ensure that
workstation policies take precedence over user polices?
A. ZEN policy loopback
B. User policy loopback
C. Group policy loopback
D. Workstation policy loopback
Answer:C

Novell   50-683 examen   50-683

NO.25 .By default, which policy package has highest precedence?
A. A policy package associated with a group object.
B. A policy package associated with the root object.
C. A policy package associated with an organization (O) object.
D. A policy package associated with an organization unit (OU) object.
Answer:A

Novell   50-683 examen   50-683   certification 50-683

NO.26 What objects can you use to set security parameters for remote management? (Choose
2.)
A. Alias
B. User
C. Group
D. Workstation
E. Server package
Answer:B, D

Novell   50-683   certification 50-683

NO.27 Exhibit.
What will happen if you select the Use as top of configuration tree box?
A. NAL will walk the tree all the way to the root object.
B. NAL will not walk the tree under the child container.
C. NAL will search eDirectory until it finds all container polices.
D. NAL will stop searching eDirectory for launcher configuration when it reaches
this container.
E. NAL will stop searching eDirectory for applications or polices when it reaches
this container.
Answer:D

Novell   50-683   50-683 examen   50-683 examen

NO.28 Which statements are true regarding ZENworks for Desktops 4 (ZfD 4) policies?
(Choose two)
A. Policies are stored on the workstation.
B. Policies are grouped according to functional area.
C. Policies allow you to assign file system rights to users.
D. ZfD 4 allows the same type of policy to perform various actions according to a
specified schedule.
Answer:B, D

Novell   50-683 examen   certification 50-683   50-683

NO.29 .In relation to ZENworks for desktop 4, which tool is used to assign the necessary
rights for a user to remotely control a workstation?
A. Help desk wizard
B. Remote control wizard
C. Remote operator wizard
D. Remote management wizard
Answer:C

certification Novell   50-683   50-683   50-683 examen

NO.30 HOTSPOT
Click the option in ConsoleOne you use to get real-time information about device
drivers on the
controlled workstation.
Answer:

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