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2014年8月11日星期一

Le meilleur matériel de formation examen Oracle 1Z0-478 1z0-481 1z1-061

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-478
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle SOA Suite 11g Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1z0-481
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle GoldenGate 11g Certified Implementation Exam Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 79 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1z1-061
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 12c: SQL Fundamentals)
Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three tasks can be performed using SQL functions built into Oracle Database?
A. Displaying a date in a nondefault format
B. Finding the number of characters in an expression
C. Substituting a character string in a text expression with a specified string
D. Combining more than two columns or expressions into a single column in the output
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 Which normal form is a table in if it has no multi-valued attributes and no partial
dependencies?
A. First normal form
B. Second normal form
C. Third normal form
D. Fourth normal form
Answer: B

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NO.3 Evaluate the following SQL statement:
Which statement is true regarding the outcome of the above query?
A. It executes successfully and displays rows in the descending order of PROMO_CATEGORY .
B. It produces an error because positional notation cannot be used in the order by clause with set
operators.
C. It executes successfully but ignores the order by clause because it is not located at the end of the
compound statement.
D. It produces an error because the order by clause should appear only at the end of a compound
query-that is, with the last select statement.
Answer: D

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NO.4 View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the product, component, and PDT_COMP
tables.
In product table, PDTNO is the primary key.
In component table, COMPNO is the primary key.
In PDT_COMP table, <PDTNO, COMPNO) is the primary key, PDTNO is the foreign key referencing
PDTNO in product table and COMPNO is the foreign key referencing the COMPNO in component
table.
You want to generate a report listing the product names and their corresponding component names,
if the component names and product names exist.
Evaluate the following query:
SQL>SELECT pdtno, pdtname, compno, compname
FROM product _____________ pdt_comp
USING (pdtno) ____________ component USING (compno)
WHERE compname IS NOT NULL;
Which combination of joins used in the blanks in the above query gives the correct output?
A. JOIN; JOIN
B. FULL OUTER JOIN; FULL OUTER JOIN
C. RIGHT OUTER JOIN; LEFT OUTER JOIN
D. LEFT OUTER JOIN; RIGHT OUTER JOIN
Answer: C

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NO.5 View the Exhibit for the structure of the student and faculty tables.
You need to display the faculty name followed by the number of students handled by the faculty at
the base location.
Examine the following two SQL statements:
Which statement is true regarding the outcome?
A. Only statement 1 executes successfully and gives the required result.
B. Only statement 2 executes successfully and gives the required result.
C. Both statements 1 and 2 execute successfully and give different results.
D. Both statements 1 and 2 execute successfully and give the same required result.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Examine the structure proposed for the transactions table:
Which two statements are true regarding the creation and storage of data in the above table
structure?
A. The CUST_STATUS column would give an error.
B. The TRANS_VALIDITY column would give an error.
C. The CUST_STATUS column would store exactly one character.
D. The CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT column would not be able to store decimal values.
E. The TRANS_VALIDITY column would have a maximum size of one character.
F. The TRANS_DATE column would be able to store day, month, century, year, hour, minutes,
seconds, and fractions of seconds
Answer: B,C

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Explanation:
VARCHAR2(size)Variable-length character data (A maximum size must be specified:
minimum size is 1; maximum size is 4, 000.)
CHAR [(size)] Fixed-length character data of length size bytes (Default and minimum size
is 1; maximum size is 2, 000.)
NUMBER [(p, s)] Number having precision p and scale s (Precision is the total number of
decimal digits and scale is the number of digits to the right of the decimal point; precision
can range from 1 to 38, and scale can range from -84 to 127.)
DATE Date and time values to the nearest second between January 1, 4712 B.C., and
December 31, 9999 A.D.

NO.7 Examine the types and examples of relationships that follow:
1.One-to-one a) Teacher to students
2.One-to-many b) Employees to Manager
3.Many-to-one c) Person to SSN
4.Many-to-many d) Customers to products
Which option indicates the correctly matched relationships?
A. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, and 4-d
B. 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, and 4-b
C. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, and 4-d
D. 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, and 4-c
Answer: C

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NO.8 View the Exhibit and evaluate the structure and data in the CUST_STATUS table.
You issue the following SQL statement:
Which statement is true regarding the execution of the above query?
A. It produces an error because the AMT_SPENT column contains a null value.
B. It displays a bonus of 1000 for all customers whose AMT_SPENT is less than CREDIT_LIMIT.
C. It displays a bonus of 1000 for all customers whose AMT_SPENT equals CREDIT_LIMIT, or
AMT_SPENT is null.
D. It produces an error because the TO_NUMBER function must be used to convert the result of the
NULLIF function before it can be used by the NVL2 function.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
The NULLIF Function The NULLIF function tests two terms for equality. If they are equal the function
returns a null, else it returns the first of the two terms tested. The NULLIF function takes two
mandatory parameters of any data type. The syntax is NULLIF(ifunequal, comparison_term), where
the parameters ifunequal and comparison_term are compared. If they are identical, then NULL is
returned. If they differ, the ifunequal parameter is returned.

2014年7月9日星期三

Oracle 1Z0-141 1Z0-402, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-141
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle9i forma Developer:build internet applications)
Questions et réponses: 138 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z0-402
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Enterprise Linux: Fundamentals)
Questions et réponses: 224 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three statements are true about the mount command? (Choose three.)
A. It supports labels for mounting.
B. It can be used only by root to mount the local file system.
C. By default it can be used by an ordinary user to mount the local file system.
D. It will list all the currently mounted file systems, if executed without any arguments.
E. It will list only the file systems listed in /etc/fstab if executed without any arguments
Answer: ABD

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NO.2 As user smith you want the CPU utilization of all the users logged on to server1 server. You want the
information available automatically as soon as you login to the bash login shell and want the information
available only to smith.
What would you do on server1, which has all the default shell configuration files, to accomplish the task?
A. Add the w command to ~/.profile file.
B. Add the who command to ~/.profile file.
C. Add the w command to ~/.bash_profile file.
D. Add the who command to ~/.bash_profile file.
Answer: C

Oracle examen   1Z0-402   1Z0-402

NO.3 Which statements are true about the File Extensions? (Choose all that apply.)
A. File extensions are just part of the file name.
B. File extensions are cared by all applications.
C. File content depends upon the file extensions.
D. File extensions do not always say what the file is.
E. File extensions have no special meaning to the kernel.
Answer: ADE

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NO.4 You executed the following command on a Linux machine:
sed s/hello/fun/g file1.txt | tr a-z A-Z > file2.txt
What three things would this command do? (Choose three.)
A. Save all changes to file2.txt.
B. Translate all uppercase characters to lowercase.
C. Translate all lowercase characters to uppercase.
D. Modifies file1.txt and creates file2.txt.
E. Replace all occurrences of the entry hello with the entry fun.
F. Replace all occurrences of the entry fun with the entry hello.
Answer: ACE

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NO.5 As a root user you want to modify the default shell prompt to include the hostname as part of the
prompt. Also you want the change in the hostname to reflect on the prompt immediately.
Which option would help you achieve this task?
A. PS2='[`hostname`]'
B. PS1='[`hostname`]'
C. PS2=''[`hostname`]''
D. PS1=''[`hostname`]''
Answer: B

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NO.6 View the Exhibit.
The shell script is executed using the default shell interpreter with the input as w. What will be the output
of the script based on this input?
A. It will print the current date and time.
B. It will list all the currently logged in users.
C. It will show that the input is not a valid option.
D. It will print the currently logged in users, current date, and time.
E. It will not show any result because the case block is terminated with an esac.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Examine the following output:
Which columns would you analyze to find the most recently invoked shell?
A. Analyze only the PID.
B. Analyze only the UID.
C. Analyze only the PPID.
D. Analyze both the UID and PID.
E. Analyze both the PID and PPID.
F. Analyze both the UID and PPID.
Answer: E

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NO.8 You have to start a process in the bash shell and at the same time want to work in the shell. How would
you achieve this without terminating the process?
A. Press [Ctrl] + [y] while the process is running.
B. Press [Ctrl] + [d] while the process is running.
C. Press [Ctrl] + [z] while the process is running.
D. Press [Ctrl] + [c] while the process is running.
Answer: C

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Guide de formation plus récente de Oracle 1z0-506 1z0-474 1Z1-403

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Code d'Examen: 1z0-506
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Fusion Financials 11g Accounts Receivable Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 123 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1z0-474
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Taleo Recruiting Cloud Service 2012 Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 76 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z1-403
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Enterprise Linux System Administration)
Questions et réponses: 115 Q&As

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NO.1 Identify two configurations that must be selected in the user type to allow hiring managers
access to only their requisitions.
A. View Requisitions -> Only if this user is an owner of the requisitions or a collaborator
B. View Requisitions -> Only if this user is an owner of the requisition, a collaborator or if the
requisitions are associated with coverage area
C. Access "Requisitions- Section
D. View Requisitions -> Without Restriction
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 What processes can be assigned unique candidate files?
A. Viewing and editing general profiles
B. Creating candidate profiles
C. Viewing and editing job submissions
D. Segmentation of candidate capture types
E. Modifying field-level security
Answer: B

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Explanation:
The candidate file identifier is used to specify which candidate-specific information is presented in
the Candidate column of candidates lists.

NO.3 When building a Career Section, in order to preview it, which area within the Career
Section would you access?
A. Application Flow Properties
B. Career Section URL
C. Career Section Properties
D. Career Portal Pages
E. Career Section Preview
Answer: E

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Explanation:
Viewing Candidates Matching a Requisition Prerequisite A user type permission grants users access
to this feature. The requisition must be posted on a career section. Steps
1.In the requisition file, select the Posting and Sourcing tab.
2.In the Career Sections section, click Preview Matching Candidates. Result The Posting Requisitions
- Filter Matching Candidates window displays candidates matching the requisition.

NO.4 When configuring a CSW, why is it important to designate a completion status within a step?
A. The Completion Status will allow the candidate to progress to the next step in the CSW.
B. The Completion Status will terminate the candidate selection process.
C. The Completion Status will require that all mandatory actions be completed before a hire can be
completed.
D. The Completion Status indicates that a candidate can move from one step to another even if
some activities are not completed in the step.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Actions available in the Next Action column are Candidate Selection Workflow (CSW) movements
only,either a
Move to the next step in the CSW
Change to the completion status within the current step If the current status is not a completion
status, the action displayed will be a move (change status) tothe first completion status of the
current step. If the current status is a completion status, then the action will be a move to the next
step at the initialstatus. In a one-step CSW (reference workflow), only statuses configured as a
"completion status" willshow up as next steps.

NO.5 As opposed to a general profile, which two elements are visible only on a job submission in
the candidate file?
A. Prescreening Questions
B. Attachment tab
C. Disqualification Questions
D. Referrals tab
E. History tab
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 Your client would like ensure that candidates have the ability to search for jobs in a variety of
ways. They would also like to provide visibility into jobs that candidates are a match for based on
data that has been collected by the system. How would you ensure that this functionality is
available?
A. Activate the Setting Display Personal Jobs List on the Career Portal Page Settings.
B. Activate the Setting Display Personal jobs List on the Career Section Properties.
C. Activate My Jobs Page on the Career Section Portal Page settings.
D. Activate My Jobs Page on the Personal Jobs List on the Career Section Properties.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
* If the candidate's submission has expired and the requisition is still posted, the Modify link is
replaced with the Reapply link on the candidate's My Jobs page.
* candidates are entering their profile inthecareer section.

NO.7 What two elements does the Configuration profile control within the Recruiting Center?
A. Search Widget
B. Core Navigation Bar
C. Coverage Areas
D. User Types
Answer: A,D

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Explanation:
D: A center stage is selected for each configuration profile and a configuration profile is tied to each
user.
A: Users can save a search query if the feature is activated in the user's configuration profile and if
the user type permission has been granted. The fields that can be selected in the Recruiting Center
to customize a search query are set by the system administrator for each configuration profile. If a
user is not linked to a configuration profile or is linked to a configuration profile for which the
system administrator has not selected additional fields, then only the set of default fields are
displayed when customizing a search query in the Recruiting Center.

NO.8 Your client would like to leverage the ACE prescreening to allow the system to automatically
sort and rank candidates who are applying to high volume positions. What type of question will you
want to avoid creating when setting up ACE prescreening for these high volume jobs?
A. Multiple Answers
B. Single Answers
C. Open Text
D. Competencies
E. Disqualification
Answer: D

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Certification Oracle de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen 1Z0-899 1Z0-868, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-899
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Java EE 6 Web Component Developer Certified Expert Exam)
Questions et réponses: 108 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z0-868
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Java Enterprise Edition 5 Enterprise Architect Certified Master Upgrade Exam)
Questions et réponses: 144 Q&As

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NO.1 You are building a dating service web site. Part of the form to submit a client's profile is a group of radio
buttons for the person's hobbies:
<input type = radio
name = hobbyEnum
value = HIKING > Hiking <br>
<input type = radio
name = hobbyEnum
value = SKING > Sking <br>
<input type = radio
name = hobbyEnum
value = SCUBA > SCUBA <br>
<! - - and more options - - >>
After the user submits this form, a confirmation screen is displayed with these hobbies listed. Assume that
an application-scoped hobbies, holds a map between the hobby enumerated type and the display name.
Which EL code snippet will display Nth element of the user's selected hobbles?
A. ${hobbies [hobbyEnum[N]}
B. ${hobbies [paramValues.hobbyEnum[N]]}
C. ${hobbies [paramValues @ hobbyEnum
@N]
D. ${hobbies.get(paramValues.hobbyEnum[N]) }
E. ${hobbies [paramValues.hobbyEnum.get(N)] }
Answer: B

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NO.2 Given:
<%
request.setAttribute ( vals , new String[] { 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 });
request.setAttribute ( index , 2 );
%>
<% - - insert code here - - %>
Which three EL expressions, inserted at line 15, are valid and evaluate to 3 ? (Choose three)
A. ${vals.2}
B. ${vals [ 2 ] }
C. ${vals.index}
D. ${vals[index] }
E. ${vals} [index]
F. ${vals. (vals.index) }
G. ${vals [vals[index-1]] }
Answer: B,D,G

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NO.3 Given the element from the web application deployment descriptor:
<jsp
property
group>
<url
pattern>/main/page1.jsp</url
pattern>
<scripting
invalid>true</scripting
invalid>
</jsp property group>
And given that /main/page1.jsp contains:
<% int i = 12; %>
<b> <%= i %> </b>
What is the result?
A. <b> <b>
B. <b> l2 </b>
C. The JSP fails to execute.
D. <% int i = 12 %>
<b> <%= i % > < b>
Answer: C

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NO.4 A web application allows the HTML title banner to be set using a context initialization parameter called
titlestr.
Which two properly set the title in the scenario.? (Choose two)
A. <title> $ {titlestr} </title>
B. <title> $ {initparam.titlestr}</title>
C. <title> $ {param [0]. titlestr} </title>
D. <title> $ {paramValues.titleStr} </title>
E. <title> $ {initParam [ titleStr ] } </title>
F. <title> $ {servletParams.titleStr} </title>
G. <title> $ {request.get ( titleStr ) } </title>
Answer: B,E

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NO.5 Given: Which three EL expressions, inserted at line 16, are valid and evaluate to d ? (Choose three)
A. ${map.c}
B. ${map.[c]}
C. ${map.[ c ]}
D. ${map.map.b}
E. ${map.[map.b]}
F. ${map. (map.b)}
Answer: A,C,E

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Code d'Examen: 1Z1-052
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g: Administrator I )
Questions et réponses: 188 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z0-465
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle RightNow CX Cloud Service 2012 Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Note the following functionalities of various background processes:
1. Record the checkpoint information in data file headers.
2: Perform recovery at instance startup.
3: Cleanup unused temporary segments.
4: Free the resources used by a user process when it fails.
5: Dynamically register database services with listeners.
6: Monitor sessions for idle session timeout.
Which option has the correct functionalities listed for a background process?
A.Archiver Process (ARCn): 1, 2, 5
B.System Monitor Process (SMON): 1, 4, 5
C.Process Monitor Process (PMON): 4, 5, 6
D.Database Writer Process (DBWn): 1, 3, 4
Answer: C

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NO.2 View the Exhibit and examine the attributes of an undo tablespace.
In an OLTP system, the user SCOTT has started a query on a large table in the peak transactional hour
that performs bulk inserts. The query runs for more than 15 minutes and then SCOTT receives the
following error:
ORA-01555: snapshot too old
What could be the reason for this error?
A.The query is unable to get a read-consistent image.
B.There is not enough space in Flash Recovery Area.
C.There is not enough free space in the flashback archive.
D.The query is unable to place data blocks in undo tablespace
Answer: A

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NO.3 You have issued a SHUTDOWN ABORT command to bring down your database instance. Consider
the steps that will be performed later when you open the database:
1. SGA is allocated.
2: Control file is read.
3: Redo log files are read.
4: Instance recovery is started.
5: Background processes are started.
6: Data files are checked for consistency.
7: Server parameter file or the initialization parameter file is read.
Which option has the correct order in which these steps occur?
A.7, 1, 5, 2, 3, 6, 4
B.1, 2, 3,7, 5, 6, 4
C.7, 1, 4, 5, 2, 3, 6
D.1, 7, 5, 4, 2, 3, 6
Answer: A

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NO.4 Open the database.
Identify the correct sequence of steps?
A.1, 2, 4, 3, 5, 6
B.2, 4, 3, 5, 6; 1 not required
C.4, 5, 6, 2, 3; 1 not required
D.5, 2, 3, 4; 1 and 6 not required
Answer: A

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6. Note the following points describing various utilities in Oracle Database 11g:
1. It enables the high-speed transfer of data from one database to another.
2: It provides a complete solution for the backup, restoration, and recovery needs of the entire database.
3: It enables the loading of data from an external file into an Oracle database.
4: It provides a tape backup management for the Oracle ecosystem.
Which point describes Oracle Secure Backup?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
E.1, 2, and 4
F.1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: D

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NO.5 Observe the information in the columns:
1. The SGAa. Text and parsed forms of all SQL statements
2: The cursor stateb. Run-time memory values for the SQL statement, such as rows retrieved
3: User-session datac. Security and resource usage information
4: The stack spaced. Local variables for the process
Which option has the correct match between the memory areas and their contents?
A.1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
B.1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
C.1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
D.1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c
Answer: C

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NO.6 You have executed this command to change the size of the database buffer cache:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_CACHE_SIZE=2516582;
System altered.
To verify the change in size, you executed this command:
SQL> SHOW PARAMETER DB_CACHE_SIZE
NAME TYPE VALUE
------------------- ----------- ------------------
db_cache_size big integer 4194304
Why is the value set to 4194304 and not to 2516582?
A.because 4194304 is the granule size
B.because 4194304 is the standard block size
C.because 4194304 is the largest nonstandard block size defined in the database
D.because 4194304 is the total size of data already available in the database buffer cache
Answer: A

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NO.7 Examine the following statement that is used to modify the constraint on the SALES table:
SQL> ALTER TABLE SALES MODIFY CONSTRAINT pk DISABLE VALIDATE;
Which three statements are true regarding the above command? (Choose three.)
A.The constraint remains valid.
B.The index on the constraint is dropped.
C.It allows the loading of data into the table using SQL *Loader.
D.New data conforms to the constraint, but existing data is not checked.
E.It allows the data manipulation on the table using INSERT/UPDATE/DELETE SQL statements.
Answer: ABC

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NO.8 Which two statements are true about the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)? (Choose two.)
A.All AWR tables belong to the SYSTEM schema.
B.The AWR contains systemwide tracing and logging information.
C.The snapshots collected by the AWR are accessible through data dictionary views.
D.The snapshots collected by the AWR are used by self-tuning components in the database.
Answer: CD

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Code d'Examen: 1z0-482
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Data Integrator 11g Certified Implementation Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 71 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z0-821
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Solaris 11 System Administrator)
Questions et réponses: 234 Q&As

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NO.1 zone1 is a non-global zone that has been configured and installed. zone1 was taken down for
maintenance, and the following command was run: zoneadm z zone1 mark incomplete The following
information is displayed when listing the zones on your system:
Which task needs to be performed before you can boot zone1?
A. The zone needs to be installed.
B. The zone needs to be brought to the ready state.
C. The zone needs to be uninstalled and reinstalled.
D. The zone needs to be brought to the complete state.
Answer: C

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NO.2 You created an IP address for interface net3 with the following command, which executed successfully:
ipadm create-addr T static a 192.168.0.100/24 net3/v4
You then ran: ipadm show if
The result indicated that the interface was down.
You then ran: ipadm delete-addr net3/v4 ipadm create-addr T static a 192.168.0.101/24 net3/v4 ipadm
show-if
The last command indicated that the interface was up. Why did it work with the second address specified,
but not the first?
A. The 192.168.0.100 address is reserved for broadcast messages.
B. Another device exists on the network, using the 192.168.0.100 address.
C. The network interface card does not support the address 192.168.0.100.
D. The address 192.168.0.100 is at a boundary and may not be configured in Oracle Solaris 11.
E. 192.168.0.100 is a DHCP address and may not be statically configured in Oracle Solaris 11.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What determines which bits in an IP address represent the subnet, and which represent the host?
A. Subnet
B. unicast
C. netmask
D. multicast
E. broadcast
Answer: C

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NO.4 You need to configure an ISCSI target device on your x86 based Oracle Solaris II system. While
configuring the iSCSI device, the following error is displayed:
bash: stmfadm: command not found
Which option describes the solution to the problem?
A. The COMSTAR feature is not supported on the x86 platform. The featureis supported only on the
SPARC platform.
B. Use the iscsitadm command on the x86 platform when configuring an iSCSI target.
C. Install the storage-server group package on this system.
D. Start the iSCSI target daemon on this system.
Answer: B

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NO.5 When speaking with an Oracle Support Engineer, you are asked to verify the version of the Solaris 11
build currently running on your system. Which command would display the Solaris 11 build version
currently running on your system?
A. pkg infokernel
B. cat /etc/release
C. cat /etc/update
D. prtconf | grep i update
E. pkg info entire
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which best describes the svc:/system/boot-config service?
A. It is used to change the milestone on a system.
B. It is used to setthe default run level of the system.
C. It provides the parameters used to set the system to automatically perform a fast or slow reboot.
D. When the service is enabled, the system performs a fast reboot by default; when it is disable the
system performs a slow reboot by default.
Answer: D

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NO.7 User named Jack, whose account is configured to use the korn shell, logs in and examines the value
of his PATH environment variable:
jack@solaris: echo $PATH
/usr/gnu/bin:/usr/bin:/usr/sbin:/sbin
There is a shell script in jack's home directory called useradd:
-r-xr-xr-x 2 jack other 1239 2012-01-05 11:42 useradd
While in his home directory, jack attempts to run the script:
jack@solaris: useradd
What will happen, and why?
A. He will get a"file not found"error, because the current directory is not in his speech path.
B. He will get a "file not found" error, because his home directory is not in his search path.
C. The useraddscript will execute, because jack is in the same directory that the script is located in.
D. Thecommand/user/sbin/useraddwill execute, because it is the last match in the search path.
E. The command /user/sbin/useraddwill execute, because it isthe first match in the search path.
Answer: C

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NO.8 You need to make sure that all of the software packages on your server are up to date. Without
installing any updates, which two commands would display .my software updates that are available in the
default Oracle repository?
A. pkglist u
B. pkg verify u ®
C. pkg search u
D. pkrj info r ®
E. pkg install nv
F. pkg update nv ®
Answer: C,F

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Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Upgrade to Java SE 7 Programmer)
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Nom d'Examen: Oracle (PeopleSoft Application Developer II: App Engine and Integration)
Questions et réponses: 102 Q&As

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Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Solaris 10 Security Administrator Certified Expert Exam)
Questions et réponses: 293 Q&As

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NO.1 Packet filters and firewalls are an important component of any defense-in-depth security strategy.
Which two types of threats can IP Filter be deployed as an effective countermeasure against? (Choose
two.)
A. a Christmas Tree scan
B. an attempt to log in to a system using SSH by an unauthorized user
C. an attempt to exploit a SQL injection vulnerability in a web storefront application
D. an attempt to exploit a buffer overflow vulnerability in rpcbind, originating from a host on an authorized
network
E. an attempt to exploit a buffer overflow vulnerability in rpcbind, originating from a host on an
unauthorized network
Answer: A,E

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NO.2 A security administator has a requirement to make an encrypted backup copy of an application and its
data, using the AES algorithm, so that it can be safely transmitted to a partner. Which two command
sequences can be used to generate an encrypted backup of the files under /app1? (Choose two.)
A. crypt < /app1/* > app1.backup.aes
B. encrypt -a aes -d /app1 -o app1.backup.aes
C. tar cf - /app1 | gzip -d -e aes > app1.backup.aes
D. ufsdump 0f - /app1 |\ crypt -a aes > app1.backup.aes
E. ufsdump 0f - /app1 |\ encrypt -a aes -o app1.backup.aes
F. tar cf - /app1 |\ openssl enc -out app1.backup.aes -aes-128-cbc
Answer: E,F

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NO.3 A new security related patch has been released for the Solaris OS. This patch needs to be applied
to the system that functions as your web server. The web server is configured to run in a non-
global zone. Can you just use patch add to apply the patch to the global zone to update the web
server zone?
A. No, you need to shut down the web server zone first.
B. Yes, patches will be automatically applied to all zones.
C. No, you need to apply the patch to the web server zone separately.
D. Yes, but you must make sure that the web server zone is booted first.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Solaris Auditing supports the selective logging of which two kinds of events? (Choose two.)
A. file access by selected users
B. access to selected files by all users
C. selected users making outbound network connections
D. password changes which do not meet the system password policy
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 You decided it was worth maintaining an extremely paranoid policy when configuring your firewall
rules. Therefore, you had your management approve the implementation of a security policy
stance to deny all inbound connection requests to your corporate network. How is it possible that
you still suffer from remote exploits that your adversaries are using to obtain interactive sessions
inside your firewall?
A. TCP splicing is easy to do.
B. Internal software may be vulnerable.
C. UDP vulnerabilities are well-known and exploited.
D. ICMP hijacking attacks can still succeed through any firewall.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
You maintain a minimized and hardened web server. The exhibit shows the current credentials that the
web server runs with. You receive a complaint about the fact that a newly installed webbased application
does not function. This application is based on a /bin/ksh cgi-bin script.
What setting prevents this cgi-bin program from working?
A. The system might NOT have /bin/ksh installed.
B. The server is NOT allowed to call the exec system call.
C. The server should run with uid=0 to run cgi-bin scripts.
D. Some of the libraries needed by /bin/ksh are NOT present in the webserver's chroot
environment.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which option is used in /etc/vfstab to limit the size of a tmpfs file system to 512MB to prevent a
memory denial of service (DoS)?
A. size=512m
B. maxsize=512
C. minsize=512
D. swapfs=512mb
Answer: A

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NO.8 A security administrator has a requirement to deploy the Solaris Security Toolkit onto all Solaris servers
in the department. In this environment, there are a variety of platforms and operating system versions
deployed. Onto which two platforms and operating system combinations can the Solaris Security Toolkit
be deployed in a supported configuration? (Choose two.)
A. x86, Solaris 2.4
B. x64, Solaris 9
C. x86, Solaris 10
D. SPARC, Solaris 2.6
E. SPARC, Solaris 8
Answer: C,E

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2014年7月6日星期日

L'avènement de la certification Oracle pratique d'examen 1Z0-052 1z0-526 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-052
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g: Administrator I )
Questions et réponses: 205 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1z0-526
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Business Intelligence Foundation 10.1.3 Essentials )
Questions et réponses: 69 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two statements are true about Shared SQL Area and Private SQL Area? (Choose two.)
A.Shared SQL Area will be allocated in the shared pool.
B.Shared SQL Area will be allocated when a session starts.
C.Shared SQL Area will be allocated in the large pool always.
D.Private SQL Area will be allocated in the Program Global Area (PGA) always.
E.Shared SQL Area and Private SQL Area will be allocated in the PGA or large pool.
F.The number of Private SQL Area allocations is dependent on the OPEN_CURSORS parameter.
Answer: AF

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NO.2 Examine the following statement that is used to modify the constraint on the SALES table:
SQL> ALTER TABLE SALES MODIFY CONSTRAINT pk DISABLE VALIDATE;
Which three statements are true regarding the above command? (Choose three.)
A.The constraint remains valid.
B.The index on the constraint is dropped.
C.It allows the loading of data into the table using SQL *Loader.
D.New data conforms to the constraint, but existing data is not checked.
E.It allows the data manipulation on the table using INSERT/UPDATE/DELETE SQL statements.
Answer: ABC

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NO.3 You have issued a SHUTDOWN ABORT command to bring down your database instance. Consider
the steps that will be performed later when you open the database:
1. SGA is allocated.
2: Control file is read.
3: Redo log files are read.
4: Instance recovery is started.
5: Background processes are started.
6: Data files are checked for consistency.
7: Server parameter file or the initialization parameter file is read.
Which option has the correct order in which these steps occur?
A.7, 1, 5, 2, 3, 6, 4
B.1, 2, 3,7, 5, 6, 4
C.7, 1, 4, 5, 2, 3, 6
D.1, 7, 5, 4, 2, 3, 6
Answer: A

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NO.4 The database instance is currently using SPFILE. View the Exhibit and examine the error that you
received while running the DB Structure Integrity check.
Given below are the steps to recover from the error in random order:
1. Shut down the instance, if not already done.
2: Copy one of the remaining control files to a new location.
3: Change the value of the CONTROL_FILES initialization parameter to correspond to the new location of
the control files.
4: Start up the database instance to the NOMOUNT stage.
5: Recover the database to the point of failure of the control file.

NO.5 View the Exhibit and examine the privileges granted to the SL_REP user.
The EMP table is owned by the SCOTT user. The SL_REP user executes the following command:
SQL> GRANT SELECT ON scott.emp TO hr;
Which statement describes the outcome of the command?
A.The command executes successfully.
B.The command produces an error because the EMP table is owned by SCOTT.
C.The command produces an error because SL_REP has the GRANT ANY OBJECT PRIVILEGE without
ADMIN_OPTION.
D.The command produces an error because SL_REP does not have the SELECT privilege with
GRANT_OPTION on the EMP table.
Answer: A

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NO.6 View the Exhibit and identify the component marked with a question mark.
A.Checkpoint (CKPT)
B.Process Monitor (PMON)
C.Archiver Processes (ARCn)
D.Recoverer Process (RECO)
E.Memory Manager process (MMAN)
Answer: A

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NO.7 Open the database.
Identify the correct sequence of steps?
A.1, 2, 4, 3, 5, 6
B.2, 4, 3, 5, 6; 1 not required
C.4, 5, 6, 2, 3; 1 not required
D.5, 2, 3, 4; 1 and 6 not required
Answer: A

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6. Note the following points describing various utilities in Oracle Database 11g:
1. It enables the high-speed transfer of data from one database to another.
2: It provides a complete solution for the backup, restoration, and recovery needs of the entire database.
3: It enables the loading of data from an external file into an Oracle database.
4: It provides a tape backup management for the Oracle ecosystem.
Which point describes Oracle Secure Backup?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
E.1, 2, and 4
F.1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: D

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NO.8 View the Exhibit and examine the attributes of an undo tablespace.
In an OLTP system, the user SCOTT has started a query on a large table in the peak transactional hour
that performs bulk inserts. The query runs for more than 15 minutes and then SCOTT receives the
following error:
ORA-01555: snapshot too old
What could be the reason for this error?
A.The query is unable to get a read-consistent image.
B.There is not enough space in Flash Recovery Area.
C.There is not enough free space in the flashback archive.
D.The query is unable to place data blocks in undo tablespace
Answer: A

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Dernières Oracle 1Z0-550 1Z0-516 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-550
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (JD Edwards EnterpriseOne 9 Configurable Network Computing Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 77 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z0-516
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle EBS R12.1 General Ledger Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 773 Q&As

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NO.1 One of your ABC.com co-workers, Tim, is working to define and develop Financial Statement Generator
reports where the budget amounts and actual amounts would display on the report per period. Tim comes
to you and says that he has defined an FSG report according to the client's requirements; the actual
amounts are correctly shown, but the problem is that budget amounts are not showing up on the report.
What is your response?
A. Budget status is Frozen.
B. The budget name needs to be associated with the row set through control values.
C. There is some issue with the assignment of accounts to the budget organization.
D. The first fiscal year of the budget was never opened.
E. The last fiscal year of the budget is Closed.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Jason, the corporate controller of ABC.com where you are implementing Oracle General Ledger,
Accounts Payable, an Accounts Receivable, is very excited about the Global Intercompany System (GIS).
He wrote some notes from a conversation with his accounting manager about GIS. He wants you to
validate which points he has written down about GIS are true. Identify Jason's three correct points. ?
(Choose three.)
A. GIS enables intercompany transactions to be approved after transfer from AP and AR.
B. Unlike intercompany accounting within the same set of books, GIS only works between sets of books
but not within the same set of books.
C. Intercompany journals are created automatically as soon as they are approved.
D. You can set up GIS so that the sender's transactions do not need to be approved by the
receiver.
E. If a sender approves the transaction but the receiver rejects it, the transaction is recalled.
F. Each company that uses GIS must be set up as a subsidiary that is associated with a balancing
segment value.
G. You can optionally send notifications to a defined user or responsibility when an intercompany
transaction is initiated.
Answer: D,F,G

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NO.3 Which two are true statements regarding elimination? (Choose two.)
A. You must specify an elimination company in the Elimination Sets window.
B. You can define balancing options for eliminating entries.
C. You can define an elimination set to contain a single elimination entry.
D. Currency is an optional component when defining an elimination set.
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 ABC.com, the GL accountant, comes to you and says that he has defined the budget, and budget
amounts have been entered and approved by management. After approval he wants his assistant
accountants to NOT be able to update this budget. What is your response?
A. If the client wants to do this, then customization of workflow is the only option.
B. If the client wants to do this, then the budget status should be Current.
C. If the client wants to do this, then the budget status should be Frozen.
D. Oracle GL budget functionality cannot satisfy this requirement.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Exhibit:
You work as a DBA for ABC.com. Please study the exhibit carefully.
GL Consolidation: Preserve Journal Batching is set to Yes.
GL Consolidation: Preserve Journal Effective Date is set to Yes.
What would the result be?
A. 1, 3, 4
B. 2, 3, 4
C. 3, 4, 5
D. 5, 1, 2
E. 5, 3, 2,
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-516   1Z0-516 examen   1Z0-516 examen

NO.6 Which statement is correct about the differences between the functionalities of parent accounts and
summary accounts?
A. Summary accounts speed up the posting process, whereas parent accounts require additional time for
the posting process.
B. Summary accounts use the summing segment type for mass allocations, whereas parent accounts use
the looping segment type.
C. Summary accounts cannot be used in budget formulas, whereas parent accounts can be used in
budget formulas.
D. Summary accounts balances can be viewed in the Account Inquiry form, whereas parent accounts
balances cannot be viewed in that form.
E. Summary accounts slow down the generation of Financial Statement Generators, whereas parent
accounts will help generate quicker results.
Answer: D

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NO.7 When you enter a journal, the journals in that batch _____.
A. should share the same period
B. should share both the same period and currency
C. should share the same accounting date
D. can have different periods, currencies, and accounting dates
E. should share the same currency
Answer: A

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NO.8 One of ABC.com's clients wants the ability to report with Financial Statements Generator (FSG) and
perform account inquiry at the summary (business unit) level of its Cost Center segment. A business unit
is a group of cost centers and a business unit manager typically has several cost centers under his or her
responsibility. Which option will meet the client's requirements?
A. Define parent cost centers and a hierarchy of parent-child cost centers. Define Rollup Groups for the
parent cost centers, and Summary Accounts. Create FSG based on the parent cost center values or
Summary Accounts.
B. Define parent cost centers and a hierarchy of parent-child cost centers. Define Rollup Groups for the
parent cost centers. Create FSG based on the Rollup Groups.
C. Define parent cost centers and a hierarchy of parent-child cost centers. Create Summary Accounts
based on the parent cost centers. Create FSG based on the parent cost center values.
D. Define parent cost centers and a hierarchy of parent-child cost centers. Define Rollup Groups for the
parent cost centers. Create FSG based on the parent cost center values.
E. Define parent cost centers and a hierarchy of parent-child cost centers. Define Summary Accounts for
the parent cost centers. Create FSG based on the parent cost center values or Summary Accounts.
Answer: A

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2014年7月2日星期三

Oracle 1Z1-536 1Z1-591 1Z0-597 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 1Z1-536
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Exadata 11g Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 69 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z1-591
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Business Intelligence Foundation Suite 11g Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 118 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z0-597
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (SPARC T4-Based Server Installation Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 89 Q&As

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NO.1 Which installation option is used to install into an existing Fusion Middleware Home?
A. Software Only Install
B. Simple Install
C. Enterprise Install
D. Cannot install into an existing Fusion Middleware Home
Answer: A

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NO.2 The administration tool is the developer's interface to the repository file. It allows the
development of and changes to the metadata repository file. Which statement is true?
A. Changes to the repository can only be carried out in offline mode.
B. Multiple developers can work on one repository at the same time.Results can be
merged later on.
C. All aspects of security are being held in the repository file.
D. Opening the rpd.filein online mode results in performance Issues for the application
user.
Answer: B

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NO.3 The highest sales amount for this year is $10,000. If you create a rank measure for sales
this year and display it on a report, the value will be .
A. $10,000
B. 0
C. 1
D. Year
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which two components are required for all OBIEE installations?
A. Admin Server
B. RCU Schema
C. Managed Server
D. Node Manager E.
Oracle 11g
Answer: B, E

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NO.5 What are the two methodologies that are followed within an OBIEE implementation?
A. Do not use prototypes
B. Use an iterative approach
C. Start with a small model and then enhance the repository
D. Start with a big repository and trim it down with the requirements
Answer: B, C

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NO.6 When a customer wants to get sales numbers by day, how is data stored in the Star
Schema, if the data is loaded nightly?
A. The lowest level of aggregation
B. The highest level of aggregation
C. Multiple levels of aggregation
D. Independently from aggregation level
Answer: B

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Oracle 1z0-460 1z0-485 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 1z0-460
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Linux 6 Implementation Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 71 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1z0-485
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Exadata Database Machine Models X3-2 and X3-8 Implementation Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 71 Q&As

Si vous vous inscriez le test Oracle 1z0-485, vous devez choisir une bonne Q&A. Le test Oracle 1z0-485 est un test Certification très important dans l'Industrie IT. C'est essentielle d'une bonne préparation avant le test.

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NO.1 A customer has three databases named CC. FIN, and DW. The CC database is for their
CallCenter. Even a slight decrease in the response time of the database would mean more people
"on hold" in their data center. The orders received through the CallCenter are stored in the Finance
(FIN) database. Both databases, CC and FIN, serve as sources for the Data Warehouse (DW)
database. All databases use the same Automatic Storage Management (ASM) diskgroup and
therefore, the same physical disks on Exadata storage. The customer wants to dynamically control
the resources that are available for the CallCenter database because this has direct impact on their
operations?
Which option should be implemented?
A. DBRM on the CC database
B. DBRM on all the databases
C. IORM, because DBRM cannot be changed for an existing session
D. IORM and DBRM
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Using the Database Resource Manager, you can: Distribute available processing resources by
allocating percentages of CPU time to different users and applications. In a data warehouse, a
higher percentage may be given to ROLAP (relational on-line analytical processing) applications than
to batch jobs.

NO.2 Consider the following setup:
User A1 belongs to resource group High on Database A.
User B2 belongs to resource group Low on Database B.
User C3 is a user on Database C without any DBRM setup.
DBRM setup:
Database A: Resource group High gets 80% and Low gets 20%.
Database B: Resource group High gets 60% and Low gets 40%.
IORM setup:
Database A: Share=20, limit=5
Database B: Share=30, limit=10
Database C: 5 shares
Total number of shares in the IORM setup = 100
What percent of I/O will each database user theoretically be using when the Exadata storage unit
I/O throughout is used 100% and no other databases but A, B, and C are running?
A. Al = 36%, B2=18%, and C3=9%
B. Al = 33%, B2=33%, and C3=33%
C. AI = 10%, B2=5%, and C3=20%
D. Al = 8%, B2=12%, and C3=5%
E. Al = 5%, B2=10%, and C3=85%
Answer: E

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Explanation:
IORM setup limits Database A to 5%, and Database B is limited to 10%, while
Database C has not IORM limit.
Not that the resource groups are for CPU allocation.

NO.3 Exadata Database Machine offers an Intelligent Platform Management Interface for the
various components in the Exadata product. Which option is true?
A. IPMI can be used to remotely start and stop servers.
B. IPMI can be used to remotely log in to the operating system.
C. IPMI commands can be executed by using SNMP traps.
D. IPMI settings can be secured by backing up the Oracle Linux installation on the storage system.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
IPMI - short for Intelligent Platform Management Interface - is an interface standard that allows
remote management of a server from another using standardized interface. The servers in the
Exadata Database Machine follow that. It's not an Exadata command but rather a general Linux one.
To power on a cell or database server, issue this from another server: # ipmitool -H prolcel01-ilom
-U root chassis power on
To stop a server, use the shutdown command. To stop immediately and keep it down, i.e. not reboot,
execute:# shutdown -h -y now

NO.4 Consider this CellCLI command:
CellCLI> CREATE GRIDDISK ALL HARDDISK PREFIX=data, size=423G;
Which two statements describe what happens when you execute this command?
A. It creates one 423 GB grid disk on the first available cell hard disk.
B. It creates one 423 GB grid disk on each available cell hard disk.
C. It creates grid disks on the outermost 423 GB that is available on each hard disk.
D. It creates grid disks on the innermost 423 GB that is available on each hard disk.
E. It creates an Exadata Smart Flash Cache on all flash drives.
Answer: B,C

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Explanation:
* Example: CellCLI> create griddisk all harddisk prefix=temp_dg, size=570G This command will
create 12 Griddisks, each of 570G in size from the outer (fastest) sectors of the underlying Harddisks.
It fills up the first 2 Celldisks entirely, because they have just 570G space free - the rest is already
consumed by the OS partition.
8. You get a Host Unreachable error when you attempt to connect to a server through a network
terminal command line. What are two other ways in which you can connect?
A. Use the ILOM Web GUI.
B. Use the dcli command at the root prompt on a database node.
C. Attach a terminal device to the back panel of the server with a serial cable.
D. Connect by using SQL *Plus.
E. Log in as root on the database node using the Net1 IP address.
Answer: A,C

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Explanation:
In addition to gaining shell access via SSH to manage your Exadata servers, you can also access them
from the Integrated Lights Out Management (ILOM) console or KVM console.
and should typically not require modifications unless you have changed network information inside
your database machine.
Note: A KVM switch (with KVM being an abbreviation for "keyboard, video and mouse") is a
hardware device that allows a user to control multiple computers from one or more[1] keyboard,
video monitor and mouse. Although multiple computers are connected to the KVM, typically a
smaller number of computers can be controlled at any given time
9. Identify three best practices for applying asmdeactivationoutcome es on Exadata Database
Servers and Exadata Storage Servers?
A. Backing up database servers and storage cells is not recommended before performing planned
maintenance.
B. Database server updates can be rolled back using the the "yum downgrade" procedure.
C. Bundle patches do not require testing before being installed on a production system.
D. It is recommended that Exadata systems with Data Guard configured use the "Standby First"
patching approach.
E. Patching should never be interrupted due to a connection drop. It is therefore recommended that
you use VNC or the screen utility.
F. Before patching cells in a rolling manner, you must check asmdeactivationoutcome amModestatus
and make sure that cells on all disks are online and that disks can be deactivated.
Answer: D,E,F

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10. The mpstat output from OS Watcher shows a database node as being 90% idle on an average.
What would you do to get a full picture of CPU utilization on the entire Exadata RAC cluster?
A. Average the mpstat id1 output from all the nodes.
B. Ask application users if they have noticed a slowdown in screen response.
C. Look for an increase in batch job servicing times.
D. A & B above
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which is the best location to point your customer to, for finding the latest Exadata patches?
A. owner's guide
B. Patch database in MyOracle Support
C. MyOracle Support note 888828.1
D. MyOracle Support for database patches, ULN for OS patches, and Sun Support for Server and
InfiniBand patches.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Before starting, we would like to share and note here two documents from My Oracle Support, aka
metalink. These notes must be the first place that you need to go to review before patching the
Exadata environment.
* (B) Database Machine and Exadata Storage Server 11g Release 2 (11.2) Supported Versions (Doc ID.
888828.1)
-This is for the second and third generation (V2 and X2) for Oracle Exadata, using Sun hardware.
* Database Machine and Exadata Storage Server 11g Release 1 (11.1) Supported Versions (Doc
ID. 835032.1)
* - This is for the first generation (V1) for Oracle Exadata, using HP hardware.

NO.6 Consider the following software changes that are performed manually on a Linux server:
1.Changes for Linux kernel firewall configuration
2.Changes for custom performance monitoring tools
3.Changes for security scan tools
4.Changes for Linux system performance optimization
Which of the software changes listed are permitted on Exadata Storage Servers?
A. 1, 2, 3, and 4
B. only 3 '
C. none
D. only 2
E. only 1 and 2
F. only 2 and 3
Answer: E

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Explanation:
1. The Storage Server Patch is responsible for keeping our cell nodes always up-todate, fixing
possible problems, and this patch includes different component patches, like kernel patches,
firmware, operation system, etc... for the Storage Server. Incorrect: 3,4: security scan tools changes
and Linux system performance optimization changes would be on the database server.

NO.7 Which two statements are true about enabling write-back flash cache?
A. When enabling write-back flash cache in a non rolling manner, it is important to ensure that
asmdeactivatonoutcome is set to YES and asmModestatus is set to ONLINE for all grid disks.
B. Before using write-back flash cache, you need to verify the minimum required versions.
C. Before write back-flash cache is enabled, you need to drop the Flash Cache first.
D. The setting flashCacheMode should be set to writeback by updating cellinit.ora and restarting
cellsrv.
E. When enabling write-back flash cache in a rolling manner, dcli should be used to inactivate the
grid disks on all cells first.
Answer: B,C

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Explanation:
B: Exadata storage version 11.2.3.2.1 is the minimum version required to use this write back flash
cache option.
C: Steps for Enabling Write back flash cache:
First of all, you don't need the stop CRS or database (This is ROLLING method) ,you can do it cell
by cell.
*drop flashcache
*Be sure asmdeactivationoutcome is YES is before disabling grid disk