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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-053
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g: Administration II)
Questions et réponses: 673 Q&As

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NO.1 View the Exhibit that sets the threshold for the Current Open Cursors Count metric. Why is the
Significance Level threshold type not available in the threshold setting?
A. because AWR baseline is not enabled
B. because Current Open Cursors Count is not a basic metric
C. because the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to BASIC
D. because the AWR baseline is a system-defined moving window baseline
Answer: B

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NO.2 You create a new Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) task:
instance_analysis_mode_task. To view the ADDM report, you use the following command:
SQL> SELECT dbms_addm.get_report('my_instance_analysis_mode_task') FROM dual;
You want to suppress ADDM output relating to Segment Advisor actions on user SCOTT's segments.
What would you do to achieve this?
A. Add a finding directive for the ADDM task.
B. Add a segment directive for the ADDM task.
C. Add a parameter directive for the ADDM task.
D. Disable the Segment Advisor from the Automatic Maintenance Task.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which statement describes the information returned by the DBMS_SPACE.SPACE_USAGE procedure
for LOB space usage?
A. It returns space usage of only BasicFile LOB chunks.
B. It returns space usage of only SecureFile LOB chunks.
C. It returns both BasicFile and SecureFile LOB space usage for only nonpartitioned tables.
D. It returns both BasicFile and SecureFile LOB space usage for both partitioned and nonpartitioned
tables.
Answer: B

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NO.4 You performed the RMAN database backup having a backupset key number 231 with the KEEP
FOREVER option.
After some days, you want to change the status of the database backup and you issued the following
command:
RMAN>CHANGE BACKUPSET 231 NOKEEP;
What is the implication of this command?
A. The backup is deleted.
B. The backup is marked unavailable.
C. The backup overrides the backup retention policy.
D. the backup becomes eligible for deletion according to the existing retention policy
Answer: D

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NO.5 Your database is in ARCHIVELOG mode. You have two online redo log groups, each of which contains
one redo member. When you attempt to start the database, you receive the following errors:
ORA-00313: open failed for members of log group 1 of thread 1
ORA-00312: online log 1 thread 1: 'D:\REDO01.LOG'
You discover that the online redo log file of the current redo group is corrupted.
Which statement should you use to resolve this issue?
A. ALTER DATABASE DROP LOGFILE GROUP 1;
B. ALTER DATABASE CLEAR LOGFILE GROUP 1;
C. ALTER DATABASE CLEAR UNARCHIVED LOGFILE GROUP 1;
D. ALTER DATABASE DROP LOGFILE MEMBER 'D:\REDO01.LOG';
Answer: C

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NO.6 Consider the following scenario for your database:
-Backup optimization is enabled in RMAN. The recovery window is set to 7 days in RMAN. The most
recent backup to disk for the TOOLS tablespace was taken on November 3, 2007.
The TOOLS tablespace is read-only since November 4, 2007.
On November 23, 2007, you issue the RMAN command to back up the database to disk. Which statement
is true regarding the backup of the TOOLS tablespace?
A. The RMAN backup fails because the TOOLS tablespace is read-only
B. The RMAN skips the backup of the tablespace because backup optimization is enabled
C. The RMAN makes backup because optimization can be enabled only for backups to disk
D. The RMAN makes the backup because no backup of the tablespace exists within the seven day
window
Answer: D

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NO.7 View the Exhibit and examine the resource consumption details for the current plan in use by the
database instance.
Which two statements are true based on the output? (Choose two.)
Exhibit:
A. An attempt to start a new session by the user belonging to DSS_QUERIES fails with an error
B. A user belonging to DSS_QUERIES can log in to a new session but the session will be queued
C. The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited for
the CPU due to resource management
D. The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited for
the CPU due to resource management, I/O waits, and latch or enqueue contention
Answer: BC

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NO.8 You are working on a CATDB database that contains an Oracle Database version 11.1 catalog schema
owned by the user RCO11. The INST1 database contains an Oracle Database version 10.1 catalog
schema owned by the user RCAT10.
You want the RMAN to import metadata for database IDs 1423241 and 1423242, registered in RCAT10,
into the recovery catalog owned by RCO11. You also want to deregister them from the catalog after import.
You executed the following commands to achieve this:
RMAN> CONNECT CATALOG rco11/password@catdb
RMAN> IMPORT CATALOG rcat10/oracle@inst1 DBID=1423241,1423242;
What happens if the RCO11 catalog has scripts with the same name as that of the scripts in RCAT10
catalog?
A. The scripts in the RCO11 catalog are overwritten.
B. RMAN renames the local stored scripts in the RCO11 catalog.
C. The RMAN session in which the command is executed aborts.
D. RMAN renames the global scripts that are imported from the RCAT10 catalog.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which two statements are true regarding hot patching? (Choose two.)
A. It requires relinking of the Oracle binary.
B. It does not require database instance shutdown.
C. It can detect conflicts between two online patches.
D. It is available for installing all patches on all platforms.
E. It works only in a single database instance environment.
Answer: BC

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NO.10 You need to configure fine-grained access control to external network resources from within your
database. You create an access control list (ACL) using the DBMS_NETWORK_ACL_ADMIN package.
Which statement is true regarding the ACL created?
A. It is a list of remote database links stored in the XML file that are available to the users of the database.
B. It is a list of users and network privileges stored in the XML file according to which a group of users can
connect to one or more hosts.
C. It is a list of users and network privileges stored in the data dictionary according to which a group of
users can connect to one or more hosts.
D. It is the list of the host names or the IP addresses stored in the data dictionary that can connect to your
database through PL/SQL network utility packages such as UTL_TCP.
Answer: B

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NO.11 The INV_HISTORY table is created using the command:
SQL>CREATE TABLE INV_HISTORY (inv_no NUMBER(3), inv_date DATE, inv_amt NUMBER(10,2))
partition by range (inv_date) interval
(numtoyminterval(1,'month')) (partition p0
values less than (to_date('01-01-2005','dd-mm-yyyy')), partition p1 values less than
(to_date('01-01-2006','dd-mm-yyyy')));
The following data has been inserted into the INV_HISTORY table :
INV_NO INV_DATE INV_AMT 1 30-dec-2004 1000 2 30-dec-2005 2000 3 1-feb-2006 3000 4 1-mar-2006
4000 5 1-apr-2006 5000
You would like to store the data belonging to the year 2006 in a single partition and issue the command:
SQL> ALTER TABLE inv_history MERGE PARTITIONS
FOR(TO_DATE('15-feb-2006','dd-mon-yyyy')), FOR(TO_DATE('15-apr-2006')) INTO PARTITION sys_py;
What would be the outcome of this command?
A. It executes successfully, and the transition point is set to '1-apr-2006'.
B. It executes successfully, and the transition point is set to '15-apr-2006'.
C. It produces an error because the partitions specified for merging are not adjacent.
D. It produces an error because the date values specified in the merge do not match the date values
stored in the table.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Because of a logical corruption in your production database, you wanted to perform Tablespace Point
in Time Recovery (TSPITR). But before you start the recovery, you queried the
TS_PITR_OBJECTS_TO_BE_DROPPED view and realized that there are a large number of objects that
would be dropped when you start the recovery by using this method. You want to preserve these objects.
Which option must you use to perform TSPITR and preserve the object?
A. Perform Export before TSPITR and Import after TSPITR
B. Move objects to another schema that has the same tablespace assigned
C. Perform Incomplete Recovery before TSPITR with the Log Sequence Number (LSN)
D. Perform Incomplete Recovery before TSPITR with the System Change Number (SCN)
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-053   1Z0-053

NO.13 A PL/SQL procedure queries only those columns of a redefined table that were unchanged by the
online table redefinition. What happens to the PL/SQL procedure after the online table redefinition?
A. It remains valid.
B. It becomes invalid for all options of online table redefinition but automatically gets revalidated the next
time it is used.
C. It becomes invalid for all options of online table redefinition and is automatically recompiled during
online redefinition of the table.
D. It becomes invalid only if the storage parameters have been modified and it automatically gets
revalidated the next time it is used.
Answer: A

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NO.14 View the Exhibit to examine the metrics with a threshold. Which statement is true regarding the
Number of Transactions (per second) metric?
A. Oracle uses statistical relevance to determine when an adaptive threshold has been breached for the
metric.
B. The statistics for the metric values observed over the baseline time period are not examined to
determine threshold values.
C. Oracle determines when an adaptive threshold has been breached based on the maximum value
captured by the baseline.
D. The total concurrent number of threshold violations, which must occur before an alert is raised for the
metric, has been set to zero.
Answer: A

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NO.15 While deploying a new application module, the software vendor ships the application software along
with appropriate SQL plan baselines for the new SQLs being introduced. Which two statements describe
the consequences? (Choose two.)
A. The plan baselines can be evolved over time to produce better performance.
B. The newly generated plans are directly placed into the SQL plan baseline without being verified.
C. The new SQL statements initially run with the plans that are known to produce good performance
under standard test configuration.
D. The optimizer does not generate new plans for the SQL statements for which the SQL plan baseline
has been imported.
Answer: AC

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NO.16 Which three components does the Scheduler use for managing tasks within the Oracle environment?
(Choose three.)
A. a job
B. a program
C. a schedule
D. a PL/SQL procedure
Answer: ABC

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NO.17 You are in the process of creating a virtual private catalog in your Oracle Database 11g database. The
PROD1, PROD2, and PROD3 Oracle Database 10g databases are registered in the base recovery
catalog. The database user who owns the base recovery catalog is CATOWNER. CATOWNER executes
the following command to grant privileges to a new user VPC1 using Oracle Database 11g RMAN
executables:
RMAN> GRANT CATALOG FOR DATABASE prod1, prod2 TO vpc1;
Then you issue the following commands:
RMAN> CONNECT CATALOG vpc1/oracle@catdb;
RMAN> SQL "EXEC catowner.dbms_rcvcat.create_virtual_catalog;"
What is the outcome of the above commands?
A. They execute and create a virtual catalog for pre-Oracle 11g clients.
B. They produce an error because PROD1 and PROD2 databases belong to the older version.
C. They produce an error because you need to connect as CATOWNER to execute this packaged
procedure.
D. They produce an error because you need to connect to the target database to execute this packaged
procedure.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Examine the section of the Health Check report given below:
DBMS_HM.GET_RUN_REPORT('HM_RUN_1061')
Run Name : HM_RUN_1061 Run Id : 1061 Check Name : Data Block Integrity Check Mode :
REACTIVE Status : COMPLETED Start Time : 2007-05-12 22:11:02.032292 -07:00 End Time :
2007.05-12 22:11:20.835135 -07:00 Error Encountered : 0
Source Incident Id : 7418
Number of Incidents Created :0
Which two statements are true regarding the Health Check report? (Choose two.)
A. Health Check was performed manually.
B. Health Check was performed to check the disk image block corruptions.
C. Health Check was performed to check interblock and intersegment corruption.
D. Health Check was performed to verify the integrity of database files and report failures.
E. Health Check was performed by the Health Monitor automatically in response to a critical error.
Answer: AB

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NO.19 You plan to have a larger moving window size for the default system-defined moving window baseline
because you want to use the adaptive threshold.
Which statement factors in this consideration while increasing the size of the moving window.?
A. The collection level for the AWR should be set to BASIC.
B. The moving window size must be less than Undo Retention.
C. The moving window size should be greater than the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) retention
period.
D. The moving window size should be equal to or less than the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)
retention period.
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-053   1Z0-053

NO.20 Which statement is true regarding online redefinition for the migration of BasicFile LOBs to SecureFile
LOBs?
A. It cannot be done in parallel.
B. It can be done at the table level or partition level.
C. It does not require additional storage because the operation is done online.
D. Local and global indexes are maintained automatically during the operation.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-026
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Network Administration)
Questions et réponses: 128 Q&As

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NO.1 Which NAMESCTL command can be used to manually force Names Server discovery?
A. Flush
B. Reload
C. Reorder_NS
D. Discover_NS
E. Start_client_cache
Answer: C

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NO.2 You are using host naming. Which components need to be installed?
A. Net8 on the server and the client machine.
B. TCP/IP and Net8 only on the client machine.
C. TCP/IP and Net8 only on the server machine.
D. TCP/IP and Net8 on the server and the client machine.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which statement is true regarding connection breaks?
A. In-band breaks are faster than out-band breaks.
B. In-band breaks use messages that invoke operating system signals.
C. In-band breaks are issued to the server process by the operating system.
D. Out-band breaks send urgent data messages and are faster than in-band breaks.
E. There are no fundamental differences between in-band breaks and out-band breaks.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which feature needs to be configured in Connection Manager to enable your system to
scale to a large number of users?
A. Connection Pooling
B. Network access control
C. Connection concentration
D. Multiple protocol interchange
Answer: C

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NO.5 If a password is configured, which command must be issued first when you need to
stop the listener?
A. Stop
B. Password
C. Set Password
D. Shutdown immediate
Answer: C

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NO.6 A DBA has installed and configured Net8 TCP/IP on the client and the server but is
still unable to connect from Windows NT Workstation using SQL*Plus to an Oracle
instance running on a remote UNIX server. However there are no problems when
using FTP between two nodes. What actions next taken by the DBA could make
progress towards diagnosing the problem?
A. Attempting to PING the server from the client.
B. Checking to see if the DNS configuration is correct.
C. Connecting by using the Net8 Assistant Test Connection feature.
D. Checking to see if the TNS ping process is running on the server.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which parameter specifies the maximum number of server processes that get
pre-spawned in a dedicated server environment? (Do not use any extra words or
characters)
Answer: MTS_MAX_SERVERS

NO.8 Which naming method simplifies administrative tasks when configuration changes
need to be made available to all clients immediately?
A. Host Naming
B. Local Naming
C. Service Naming
D. Centralized Naming
Answer: D

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NO.9 In which file is the information that host naming is enabled stored?
A. Init.ora
B. Sqlnet.ora
C. Tnsnames.ora
D. Listener.ora
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which two are tasks of the dispatcher process? (Choose two)
A. Receiving connection requests.
B. Placing a request in the request queue.
C. Updating the listener with new LOAD values.
D. Determining if the client request can be processed.
Answer: B, C

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NO.11 Which statement regarding the logging and tracing of Net8 is True?
A. Logging cannot be disabled on client.
B. There are four levels of logging that can be set.
C. Tracing can take up significant disk space but has little impact on performance.
D. There is no way to prevent new trace data from being appended to the same file with
each new session.
Answer: B

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NO.12 You setup MTS for the PROD database, which uses multiple listeners to handle
requests. Which listener control command can you issue for each listener that the
dispatchers have registered with all listeners used by the database?
A. DISPATCHER<listener name>
B. SHOW ALL
C. SERVICES<listener name>
D. SHOW SERVICES<listener name>
E. SHOW DISPATCHER<listener name>
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which process picks up a request from a response queue?
A. Client process
B. Listener process
C. Dispatcher process
D. Shared server process
Answer: C

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NO.14 When configuring for multiple protocol interchange, what does Source_Route
indicate?
A. Enables connections through Connection Manager.
B. Identifies the service name to which the connection needs to be established.
C. Identifies the database SID to which the connection needs to be established.
D. Identifies the node and the port number on which connection manager is running.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which folder would you use in the Net8 Assistant Tool to change the naming
method?
A. Profile
B. Configuration
C. Service Names
D. Oracle Names Server
Answer: A

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NO.16 The listener audit trail provides information about every client connection request.
Which additional request about the client is NOT provided?
A. Client user ID
B. Database user name
C. Network protocol
D. Client host (platform)
Answer: B

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NO.17 When is the request sent to a listener?
A. After every call.
B. Before every call.
C. After name resolution.
D. Before name resolution.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which are two features of Connection Manager? (Choose two)
A. Connection exchange.
B. Connection resolution.
C. Connection multiplexing.
D. Connection cross-linking.
E. Protocol transformation.
F. Protocol interchange capability.
Answer: C, F

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NO.19 The initial number of dispatchers is set to 50. Because of the load on the dispatcher
processes the DBA needs to decrease the number of dispatchers. Which two
recommended procedures could be used? (Choose two)
A. Issue the ALTER SYSTEM command to remove dispatchers.
B. Issue the ALTER SESSION command to remove dispatchers.
C. Edit the MTS_DISPATCHERS parameter and bounce the database.
D. Edit the MTS_MAX_DISPATCHERS parameter and bounce the database.
E. Edit the MTS_MIN_DISPATCHERS parameter and bounce the database.
Answer: A, C

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NO.20 How many response queues are present in a multithreaded server environment?
A. One per system.
B. One per database.
C. One per listener.
D. One per dispatcher.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-516
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle EBS R12.1 General Ledger Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 773 Q&As

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NO.1 Which report would provide information about the processing type (parallel or sequential) that may be
defined for reports?
A. Report Detail Listing
B. Content Set Summary Listing
C. Row Set Summary Listing
Answer: B

certification Oracle   1Z0-516   certification 1Z0-516

NO.2 Jason, the corporate controller of ABC.com where you are implementing Oracle General Ledger,
Accounts Payable, an Accounts Receivable, is very excited about the Global Intercompany System (GIS).
He wrote some notes from a conversation with his accounting manager about GIS. He wants you to
validate which points he has written down about GIS are true. Identify Jason's three correct points. ?
(Choose three.)
A. GIS enables intercompany transactions to be approved after transfer from AP and AR.
B. Unlike intercompany accounting within the same set of books, GIS only works between sets of books
but not within the same set of books.
C. Intercompany journals are created automatically as soon as they are approved.
D. You can set up GIS so that the sender's transactions do not need to be approved by the
receiver.
E. If a sender approves the transaction but the receiver rejects it, the transaction is recalled.
F. Each company that uses GIS must be set up as a subsidiary that is associated with a balancing
segment value.
G. You can optionally send notifications to a defined user or responsibility when an intercompany
transaction is initiated.
Answer: D,F,G

Oracle   1Z0-516   1Z0-516

NO.3 After creating a number of Financial Statement Generator reports, ABC.com wants a list of the
definitions for one specific account. Which report should be run to provide that information?
A. FSG: Content Set Detail Listing
B. FSG: Report Detail Listing
C. FSG: Where Used Report
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-516   certification 1Z0-516   1Z0-516 examen

NO.4 What is the effect of summary accounts on the efficiency of the posting process?
A. There is no effect, because summary accounts do not use the posting process to accumulate values.
B. Use of summary accounts decreases the efficiency of the posting process.
C. Use of summary accounts neither increases nor decreases the efficiency of the posting
process.
D. Use of summary accounts increases the efficiency of the posting process.
Answer: B

Oracle examen   1Z0-516   1Z0-516 examen

NO.5 Exhibit:
You work as a DBA for ABC.com. Please study the exhibit carefully.
GL Consolidation: Preserve Journal Batching is set to Yes.
GL Consolidation: Preserve Journal Effective Date is set to Yes.
What would the result be?
A. 1, 3, 4
B. 2, 3, 4
C. 3, 4, 5
D. 5, 1, 2
E. 5, 3, 2,
Answer: A

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-516   1Z0-516

NO.6 During a period, several preapproved batches of miscellaneous transactions were entered and
released. The project manager informs you that he is unable to view the accounting in the expenditure
inquiry form. Which process was likely omitted?
A. streamline costs
B. distribute costs
C. interface costs
D. tieback costs
Answer: B

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-516   1Z0-516   1Z0-516   1Z0-516

NO.7 Which two are true statements regarding elimination? (Choose two.)
A. You must specify an elimination company in the Elimination Sets window.
B. You can define balancing options for eliminating entries.
C. You can define an elimination set to contain a single elimination entry.
D. Currency is an optional component when defining an elimination set.
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 One of ABC.com's clients wants the ability to report with Financial Statements Generator (FSG) and
perform account inquiry at the summary (business unit) level of its Cost Center segment. A business unit
is a group of cost centers and a business unit manager typically has several cost centers under his or her
responsibility. Which option will meet the client's requirements?
A. Define parent cost centers and a hierarchy of parent-child cost centers. Define Rollup Groups for the
parent cost centers, and Summary Accounts. Create FSG based on the parent cost center values or
Summary Accounts.
B. Define parent cost centers and a hierarchy of parent-child cost centers. Define Rollup Groups for the
parent cost centers. Create FSG based on the Rollup Groups.
C. Define parent cost centers and a hierarchy of parent-child cost centers. Create Summary Accounts
based on the parent cost centers. Create FSG based on the parent cost center values.
D. Define parent cost centers and a hierarchy of parent-child cost centers. Define Rollup Groups for the
parent cost centers. Create FSG based on the parent cost center values.
E. Define parent cost centers and a hierarchy of parent-child cost centers. Define Summary Accounts for
the parent cost centers. Create FSG based on the parent cost center values or Summary Accounts.
Answer: A

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-516   1Z0-516   1Z0-516 examen   1Z0-516 examen

NO.9 ABC.com is a national company with five divisions that share the same set of books. Select the
statement that best describes the consolidation process for ABC Corporation.
A. Run translations, transfer data and run financial reports.
B. Run revaluation, translation, and eliminations; transfer data and run financial reports.
C. Run revaluation and translation, transfer data and run financial reports.
D. Transfer data and run financial reports.
E. Enter eliminating journals and run financial reports.
Answer: E

Oracle   1Z0-516   1Z0-516

NO.10 You are implementing Oracle General Ledger at a ABC.com site. ABC.com is based in the US but has
a presence in many countries worldwide, and has transactions in multiple currencies. The implementation
team decides that GL multi currency setup will be part of the implementation. John, a junior consultant
helping you in the implementation effort, comes to you and says that he is testing the system and entering
journals in US dollars, yen and euros. He says that he is able to enter the journals in US dollars and euros,
but cannot enter the journals in Japanese yen. What possible explanation can you provide to John for
this?
A. Workflow needs to be customized for journals to be entered in yen.
B. Yen currency has not been enabled.
C. Daily rates have not been entered for yen.
D. Rate types have not been defined for yen.
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z0-516   1Z0-516   certification 1Z0-516

NO.11 One of your ABC.com co-workers, Tim, is working to define and develop Financial Statement Generator
reports where the budget amounts and actual amounts would display on the report per period. Tim comes
to you and says that he has defined an FSG report according to the client's requirements; the actual
amounts are correctly shown, but the problem is that budget amounts are not showing up on the report.
What is your response?
A. Budget status is Frozen.
B. The budget name needs to be associated with the row set through control values.
C. There is some issue with the assignment of accounts to the budget organization.
D. The first fiscal year of the budget was never opened.
E. The last fiscal year of the budget is Closed.
Answer: B

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NO.12 What are the possible posting options in Oracle General Ledger?
A. Post Journal batches individually Post multiple batches Use AutoPost
B. Post Journal batches individually Post multiple journals
C. Post multiple batches
Post batches that meet specific criteria by submitting a concurrent request
D. Post Journal batches individually Post multiple batches Post batches that meet specific criteria by
submitting a concurrent request and using Journal Approval
Answer: A

Oracle   certification 1Z0-516   1Z0-516   1Z0-516

NO.13 .ABC.com has two diverse business operations in retail stores and services. It has five legal entities in
Canada and five in the United States for both operations. The fiscal year end is the same for all the legal
entities with 12 monthly periods. However, ABC.com wants to use a 4-5-4 accounting calendar for its retail
operations and a calendar-month accounting calendar for the services operations. ABC.com also wants to
use a single chart of accounts structure. Which five items must ABC.com define to meet the minimum
setup steps that are required for the sets of books for all legal entities? (Choose five.)
A. two accounting calendars
B. four sets of books
C. three sets of books
D. two sets of books
E. chart of accounts structure
F. period types or use seeded ones
G. one accounting calendar
H. enable seeded CAD and USD currencies
I. account combinations
Answer: A,B,E,F,H

Oracle   1Z0-516   1Z0-516

NO.14 You are implementing Oracle General Ledger at ABC.coms site. ABC.com is based in the US but has a
global presence in many countries worldwide, and has transactions in multiple currencies.
The implementation team decides that GL multi currency setup will be part of the implementation.
The GL accountant approaches you to discuss multiple reporting currencies (MRC); he wants to
implement MRC and link the primary set of books with the reporting set of books. Additionally, he says
that the primary and reporting sets of books all have different calendars but share the same chart of
accounts. What response do you provide?
A. The primary and reporting set of books must share the same calendar and chart of accounts.
B. There is no problem in satisfying this requirement.
C. The primary and reporting set of books must share the same currency and chart of accounts.
D. The primary and reporting set of books must share the same calendar, currency and chart of
accounts.
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-516   1Z0-516

NO.15 Which two statements correctly describe the translation process? (Choose two.)
A. The translation process allows you to translate only year-to-date amounts.
B. If you rerun the translation process, the process adds the additional data to the previous translated
amounts.
C. You can rerun the translation process more than once per period.
D. Translation for a subsidiary can be initiated from the parent using the State Controller Translate button.
Answer: C,D

Oracle   1Z0-516   certification 1Z0-516   1Z0-516

NO.16 Oracle General Ledger provides a variety of ways to get information from reports and queries. What
can you do using standard reports that you cannot do using on-line queries? (Choose all that apply.)
A. group reports into report sets
B. review T-Accounts
C. view non-financial information
Answer: A,C

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-516   1Z0-516   certification 1Z0-516

NO.17 ABC.com is a $2 million company operating from the U.S., and has one set of books. It is spinning off
from its parent company and will be operating as an independent company. It is considering implementing
Oracle Financials but wants the product to work exactly in the same way as its legacy systems from its
parent company. What considerations should be presented to ABC in order for it to make a well-informed
decision? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Patching is simplified on a non-customized Oracle implementation.
B. Adding customizations to replicate the legacy system could increase cost of future upgrades.
C. Integration issues between modules are reduced when there are no customizations.
D. No information can be interfaced from the legacy system to the product.
Answer: A,B,C

Oracle   1Z0-516   certification 1Z0-516   1Z0-516   1Z0-516

NO.18 To review available Financial Statement Generator elements, which two reports would be helpful?
(Choose two.)
A. Column Set Detail Listing, Report Detail Listing
B. Content Set Detail Listing, Report Set Detail Listing
C. Column Set Summary Listing, Row Set Detail Listing
D. Content Set Detail listing, Chart of Accounts - Rollup Detail Listing
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which statement is correct about the differences between the functionalities of parent accounts and
summary accounts?
A. Summary accounts speed up the posting process, whereas parent accounts require additional time for
the posting process.
B. Summary accounts use the summing segment type for mass allocations, whereas parent accounts use
the looping segment type.
C. Summary accounts cannot be used in budget formulas, whereas parent accounts can be used in
budget formulas.
D. Summary accounts balances can be viewed in the Account Inquiry form, whereas parent accounts
balances cannot be viewed in that form.
E. Summary accounts slow down the generation of Financial Statement Generators, whereas parent
accounts will help generate quicker results.
Answer: D

Oracle examen   1Z0-516   1Z0-516   1Z0-516

NO.20 ABC.com has offices around the world, spread across different legal entities. ABC.com is
implementing Oracle General Ledger. Its accounting department wants to know how to reduce the burden
of elimination entries. What do you recommend?
A. Mass Allocation
B. ADI Journals
C. Recurring Journals
D. Summary Journals
E. Intercompany Journals
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-516   certification 1Z0-516

NO.21 For each subledger there should be one _____.
A. Account Type
B. Journal Category
C. Journal Type
D. Journal Source
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-516   1Z0-516

NO.22 ABC.com has offices around the world, spread across different legal entities. ABC.com is
implementing Oracle General Ledger. Its accounting department wants to know how to reduce the burden
of elimination entries. What do you recommend?
A. Summary Journals
B. ADI Journals
C. Intercompany Journals
D. Recurring Journals
E. Mass Allocation
Answer: D

certification Oracle   1Z0-516   1Z0-516

NO.23 After you determine your needs and organize your summary account structure, which General Ledger
tools can you use to define parent-child values and rollup groups?
A. Analyzer Hierarchies, Account Hierarchy Manager or Account Hierarchy Editor (provided Applications
Desktop Integrator is installed).
B. Mass Maintenance, Analyzer Hierarchies, or Account Hierarchy Manager
C. Mass Maintenance or Account Hierarchy Manager
D. Mass Maintenance or Account Hierarchy Editor (provided Applications Desktop Integrator is installed).
E. Account Hierarchy Manager or Account Hierarchy Editor (provided Applications Desktop Integrator is
installed).
Answer: E

Oracle   certification 1Z0-516   1Z0-516   1Z0-516

NO.24 The Consolidation Workbench enables you to _____, _____, and _____. (Choose three.)
A. access the State Controller
B. create consolidations sets, which launch multiple consolidations in a single step
C. create multilevel hierarchies, which you can view using the graphical Consolidation Hierarchy Viewer
D. change the chart of accounts
Answer: A,B,C

Oracle   certification 1Z0-516   1Z0-516   1Z0-516   1Z0-516 examen

NO.25 ABC.com has many Financial Statement Generator reports created to produce Profit & Loss
statements and Balance Sheet reports. Occasionally ABC.com has a need to run a report that is slightly
different than the standard ones that are already created. Which two types of changes could XYZ make
using the Row Order feature? (Choose two.)
A. display segment values and descriptions
B. add a new calculation
C. change how rounding options are performed
D. sort based on column values
Answer: A,D

Oracle   1Z0-516   1Z0-516

NO.26 ABC.com wants to define a consolidation process for its enterprise.
It has two sets of books: Set of Books A and Set of Books B.
Both sets of books will use Oracle General Ledger.
Set of Books A has three companies with the same calendar and chart of accounts as Set of Books B. Set
of Books A has USD as its currency.
Set of Books B has four companies with the same chart of accounts and calendar as Set of Books
A. Set of Books B has GPD as its currency. Select the consolidation method.
A. Interface Data Transformer
B. Global Intercompany System
C. Oracle Financial Analyzer
D. Financial Statement Generator
Answer: D

certification Oracle   1Z0-516 examen   certification 1Z0-516

NO.27 Identify the two setups that control the defaulting of Tax Information on a journal entry. (Choose two.)
A. Set of Books
B. Journal categories
C. Account
Answer: A,C

Oracle   1Z0-516   1Z0-516   1Z0-516 examen   1Z0-516 examen

NO.28 All of the manual journal entries are defaulting to a non current period. Which step was omitted from
the accounting cycle?
A. Post Journal Entries
B. Update Period
C. Consolidate Financials
D. Translated Foreign Balances
E. Reverse Journal Entries
Answer: B

certification Oracle   1Z0-516   1Z0-516   certification 1Z0-516

NO.29 ABC.com, the GL accountant, comes to you and says that he has defined the budget, and budget
amounts have been entered and approved by management. After approval he wants his assistant
accountants to NOT be able to update this budget. What is your response?
A. If the client wants to do this, then customization of workflow is the only option.
B. If the client wants to do this, then the budget status should be Current.
C. If the client wants to do this, then the budget status should be Frozen.
D. Oracle GL budget functionality cannot satisfy this requirement.
Answer: C

Oracle   certification 1Z0-516   1Z0-516   1Z0-516

NO.30 When you enter a journal, the journals in that batch _____.
A. should share the same period
B. should share both the same period and currency
C. should share the same accounting date
D. can have different periods, currencies, and accounting dates
E. should share the same currency
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-451
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle SOA Foundation Practitioner)
Questions et réponses: 121 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two statements are true about proxy service in Oracle service bus (Oracle Service Bus)?
A. Proxy services are OSB definitions of enterprise services that exchange messages during businesses
processes and they do not have a pipeline
B. Proxy services are definitions of generic intermediary web services that are hosted locally on Oracle
service bus.
C. Proxy services can be configured using Oracle jdeveloper.
D. Message handling capabilities of proxy service are implemented with message flow definitions using a
pipeline.
Answer: B,D

Oracle   certification 1Z0-451   1Z0-451   1Z0-451   certification 1Z0-451

NO.2 A BPL process uses to invokes to insert data into two Oracle database tables the first invokes inserts
data into master table and the second invokes insert data into detail table?
Identify the statement that will undo both transactions by throwing a fault if either one of the transaction
faults?
A. <throw name- throw
fault name bpebrsqlexception />
B. <throw name- throw
fault name bpetxcrollback />
C. <throw name- throw
fault name bpetxnuntime fault />
D. <throw name- throw
fault name bpetxfault />
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-451   1Z0-451   1Z0-451   1Z0-451   certification 1Z0-451

NO.3 Which two components can be found on SAO component palette of Oracle SOA component?
A. BPEL process
B. Partner link.
C. Human task.
D. ADF-BC.
Answer: A,C

Oracle   1Z0-451   1Z0-451   1Z0-451 examen   1Z0-451 examen

NO.4 For business rules, a rules dictionary contains one or more definitions of: facts; constraints; functions;
rule sets. Identify the correct statement that defines the facts.
A. Has a collection of facts type,global variables constants function and rulesets.
B. Are declared as: if condition than action .
C. Have an action: assign,assert,call function (or javamethod)
D. Are data or business objects on which the rule engine evaluates the rule condition.
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-451   1Z0-451   1Z0-451 examen   1Z0-451 examen

NO.5 Which two statements are about Oracle SOA suit 11g s BPEL component when using the entity?
A. Data operations such as loading and saving are performed automatically by thedata provider service
with outasking to code any service in vocation
B. Data operation such as explicitly loading and saving data are performed by the data base adapter in
Oracle BPEL process manager
C. Data in variables is in service data object form. (SDO)
D. Data in variable is in document object (DOM) form.
Answer: A,B

Oracle   1Z0-451   1Z0-451 examen   1Z0-451 examen   1Z0-451

NO.6 Two types of services with transactional behavior that can be implemented in Oracle database adapters
and ____________ .
A. File adapters.
B. Service data objects.
C. SOAP Endpoints.
D. Active server objects.
Answer: B

Oracle examen   1Z0-451   1Z0-451
Explanation:

NO.7 Oracle SOA suit 11g has two components, mediator and Oracle service bus. Both provide
transformation and validation functionality. Which two statements are true.
A. The mediator is an intra-composite component responsible for brokering communications between
components that make up a composite,enabling transformation,routing and payload validation inside the
component.
B. The mediator is stand alone component responsible for brokering communications between service
end points enabling transformation,routing and payload validation.
C. Oracle service bus is stand alone component responsible for brokering communicationsbetween
service endpoints enabling transformation,routing and pay load validation.
Answer: A,C

Oracle examen   1Z0-451 examen   1Z0-451   1Z0-451

NO.8 Which three components can be used to configure a human task?
A. Task management service.
B. Task routing service.
C. Data service.
D. Identity service.
E. Security service
Answer: B,C,D

Oracle   certification 1Z0-451   1Z0-451 examen   1Z0-451

NO.9 Two types of services with transactional behavior that can be implemented in Oracle SOA suite 11g
database adapters and ____________ .
A. File adapters.
B. Service data objects.
C. SOAP Endpoints.
D. Active server objects
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-451   1Z0-451   1Z0-451

NO.10 Which these are valid methods to assign users, groups, and application rules during design time, to
tasks in a human workflow?
A. Assign users,groups,and application rules using XQuerry
B. Assign users,groups,and application rules using LDAP rules and privileges.
C. Assign users,groups,and application rules using business rules.
D. Assign users,groups,and application rules using Oracle Haley.
E. Assign users,groups,and application rules using a delimited string of users,groups,or application roles.
Answer: E

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NO.11 What is true when implementing human reactions that are part of composite applications using the
human task component in SOA 11g?
A. The human task configuration is stored in the task
metadata file.
B. The human task service uses an identity directory,such as LDAP,to determine people rules and
privileges.
C. The human task service engine executes all the human task components in SOA composite
application.
D. The human task is not available in standalone mode is always associated with BPEL process service
component.
E. The wordlist application can also be used to change the human task configuration.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Service component architecture (SCA) is set of specifications for ____________, ____________
and ____________.
A. Implementing applications based on reusability.
B. Implementing business applications using BBEL.
C. A programming model for building applications based on service on service oriented architecture.
D. Composition of services and creation of service components including the reuse of existing services.
E. Implementing procedural models to built software applications.
Answer: A,C,D

certification Oracle   1Z0-451 examen   1Z0-451 examen   1Z0-451   1Z0-451 examen

NO.13 Human task service prevents tasks to users via which channels? (Choose two.)
A. Oracle BPM wordlist application.
B. Oracle forms based notification.
C. Actionable notification sent via sms.
D. Actionable notification sent via Email.
Answer: A,D

Oracle   certification 1Z0-451   1Z0-451 examen   1Z0-451   certification 1Z0-451

NO.14 What is the purpose of Oracle BPEL process manager dehydration store.?
A. The dehydration store is used to save all state information in a database to avoid showing down the
system due to too much IO.
B. The dehydration store is used to store the process state for long-running process which will allocate
memory to be given back to the system and will not consume resources while waiting.
C. The dehydration store is good way to preserve long running processes,and it prevents any location of
state or reliability if a system shut down
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-451   certification 1Z0-451   1Z0-451

NO.15 Identify the correct order in which the fault management framework attempts to identify a fault policy
binding?
BPEL process or Oracle mediator service component defined in the composite xml file.
SOA composite application defined in the composite XML file.
Reference binding component defined in the composite XML file.
A. 1,2,3
B. 3,1,2
C. 3,2,1
D. 1,3,2
Answer: B

certification Oracle   1Z0-451   1Z0-451

NO.16 Your Oracle SOA composite is running in production but due to new government mandate you have to
update the security policy based on Oracle web service manager. What are your options to update the
security policy?
A. Attach updated policy via the command line interface.
B. Attach updated policy in jdeveloper and redeploy component.
C. Attach policy in enterprise model console test it and reattach with out redeployment.
D. Attach policy via web logic admin console after deployment.
Answer: B

Oracle examen   1Z0-451 examen   1Z0-451   1Z0-451

NO.17 You are using Oracle jdeveloper 11g composite editor tool to build a composite application.
Which service lime will you use to define your interfaces to the composite?
A. Reference services lane.
B. Exposed services lane.
C. External services lane.
D. Internal services lane.
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z0-451   1Z0-451 examen   certification 1Z0-451   certification 1Z0-451

NO.18 The event delivery network is designed for handling asynchronous messaging arising from a business
event or service and supports ____________.
A. Request-response model.
B. Publish-subscribe declarative model.
C. Fire-forget model.
D. Request-reply model.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Oracle SOA suite 11g configured with the _____________ application that enables the composite
application components to send application?
A. Workload
B. User messaging service
C. Worklist
D. Workflow
Answer: C

Oracle examen   1Z0-451 examen   1Z0-451 examen   1Z0-451   certification 1Z0-451   1Z0-451

NO.20 Using the Oracle BPM worklist application, a user can do which three things.
A. Perform authorized actions on tasks.
B. Create personal tasks.
C. Define delegation rules.
D. Define user groups.
E. Define task routing policy.
Answer: A,B,C

Oracle examen   1Z0-451   certification 1Z0-451   1Z0-451
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Code d'Examen: 1z0-539
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle GoldenGate 10 Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 72 Q&As

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NO.1 You want to configure replication of CREATE TABLE statements from oracle to Teradata, so that only
new table created in your mapped source schema is Replicated. Which should be the part of solution?
A. This feature is not supported in oracle goldenGate 10.
B. DDL INCLUDE MAPPED in extra parameter file.
C. DDL INCLUDE UNMAPPED in extra parameter file.
D. DDL EXCLUDE MAPPED in extra parameter file.
Answer: B

Oracle   1z0-539   1z0-539   1z0-539 examen

NO.2 Which translations are captured if you ADD EXTRACT BEGIN now 1:00 p.m., but START EXTRACT at
2:00 p.m.?
A. Transactions started on or after 1:00 p.m.
B. Transactions started on or after 2:00 p.m.
C. Transactions started before 1:00 p.m and committed after 1:00 p.m.
D. Transactions started before 1:00 p.m and committed after 2:00 p.m.
Answer: A

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NO.3 CORRECT TEXT
By default, which option is evaluated first, SQLEXEC or filter statement?
A.SQLEXEC
B. FILTER
C.There is no default; it is set with the after filter I before filter.
D. It depends on their position in the parameter file; the first encountered is executed first.
Answer: B

Oracle   1z0-539   certification 1z0-539   certification 1z0-539

NO.4 What GoldenGate process is responsible for capturing changes in the source database?
A. Manager
B. Replicate
C. Extract
D. Server Collector
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which statements are true of goldenGate password encryption?
A password can be encrypted and pasted into a parameter file. An encrypted password can be generated
using the default key. An encrypted password can be generated using a user defined-key.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 3
E. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: E

certification Oracle   certification 1z0-539   1z0-539   1z0-539 examen   1z0-539 examen

NO.6 Which three describe a valid OGG Event Action?
A. Stop the process
B. Write a checkpoint before and/or after writing the record to the trail.
C. Run a shell command
D. Purge old trail files
Answer: A,B,C

certification Oracle   certification 1z0-539   1z0-539   1z0-539

NO.7 Which Manager Parameter sets will report current lag every hour and write a critical message for any
Extract/Replicate with a lag over 60 minutes?
A. LAGBEPOBTHOURS 1, LAGINFO 1 and LAGCRITICAL 60
B. LAGREPORTMINUTES 60, LAGINFOHOURS 1
C. LAGREPOBT 1, I.AGCRITICALHOURS 1
D. LAGREPOBTHOURS 1, LAGINFOMINUTES 30, LAGCR JTTCAI-M I
Answer: B

Oracle   certification 1z0-539   1z0-539   1z0-539   1z0-539 examen

NO.8 You want encrypt message sent or over TCP/IP to server usserver1, where the goldenGate manage
process is running on port 7809. Your requirements include using a custom encryption key and advanced
encryption standard (AES), and you have created an ENCKEYS file What parameters should you use?
A. This feature is not supported in oracle goldenGate 10.
B. RMTHOST usserval, MGRPORT 7809, ENCRYPT AES, ENCRYPT KEY
C. RMTHOST usserval, MGRPORT AES, ENCRYPTKEY MYKWY, MBRPORT 7809
D. RMTHOST usserval, MGRPORT 7809, ENCRYPT BLOWFISH ENCRYPTKEY MYKEY
Answer: D

Oracle   1z0-539   1z0-539   1z0-539 examen

NO.9 What parameter provides options for compression and encryption?
A. RMTHOST
B. TARGET
C. TCPIP
D. TARGET DB
Answer: A

Oracle examen   certification 1z0-539   1z0-539 examen

NO.10 Which argument is used to set the maximum size of the EXTTRAIL or RMTTRAL.
A. MAXSIZE
B. TRAILSIZE
C. HAXTRAILSI2E
D. TRAILMAXSIZE F
E. MEGABYTES
Answer: E

Oracle   1z0-539   certification 1z0-539

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Code d'Examen: C-TFIN52-64
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Financial Accounting with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

C-TFIN52-64 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/C-TFIN52-64.html

NO.1 Consider the following sentences about field status:
1. Fields which ______ can be made ______.
2) Fields that can be entered, but are not required, can be set to ______ entry.
Which of the options below matches the blank spaces of those sentences?
A. must not have an entry/optional for 1; suppressed for 2)
B. must have an entry/suppressed for 1; suppressed for 2)
C. must have an entry/optional for 1; optional for 2)
D. must have an entry/required for 1; optional for 2)
E. must not have an entry/required for 1; optional for 2)
Answer: D

SAP   C-TFIN52-64   C-TFIN52-64 examen   C-TFIN52-64 examen

NO.2 A document can only be reversed if: One or more is correct.
A. The original document contains no cleared line items, if the document does contain
cleared items, then
these items must be reset before reversal can take place.
B. The original document contains only customer, vendor and G/L line items.
C. The original document was posted in FI system or originating in other modules.
D. All specified values (such as, cost center) are not still valid.
Answer: A, B

SAP   C-TFIN52-64   C-TFIN52-64 examen

NO.3 SAP provides model charts of depreciation for many countries but we can also define
our own chart of
depreciation (by copying and changing)
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A

SAP   C-TFIN52-64   C-TFIN52-64   C-TFIN52-64

NO.4 For which scenario can you use the cash journal?
A. To post incoming and outgoing payments in any transaction currency.
B. To make remittances to vendors.
C. To record documents that will not be included in the general ledger.
D. To manage cash in local branches and offices.
Answer: D

SAP   C-TFIN52-64   C-TFIN52-64 examen   C-TFIN52-64

NO.5 Asset history sheet is the most important and most comprehensive year end report or
intermediate
report
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

SAP   C-TFIN52-64   certification C-TFIN52-64   certification C-TFIN52-64   certification C-TFIN52-64   certification C-TFIN52-64

NO.6 What do the posting keys specify? (4)
(Note: we can have more than one correct sentence. Please select the sentences you think
they are
correct)?
A. Whether the accounts are allowed for posting.
B. Whether the line items are valid for a business transaction.
C. Whether the line items contain "credit" or "debit" values.
D. Whether the line item is connected to a payment transaction or not.
E. Whether the posting is sales-relevant and the sales figure of the account is to be updated
by the
transaction, for example, by the posting of a customer invoice.
Answer: A, C, D, E

certification SAP   C-TFIN52-64   C-TFIN52-64 examen

NO.7 Several company codes can use the same chart of accounts, although they have
different charts of
depreciation
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

SAP   C-TFIN52-64   C-TFIN52-64 examen   C-TFIN52-64 examen

NO.8 Company codes from different countries cannot tie processed in same payment run
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

SAP   certification C-TFIN52-64   C-TFIN52-64

NO.9 Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements is false (Please choose the correct sentence)?
A. The account type field in terms of payment basic data screen should be defined
separately, to prevent
any done change in the term of payment.
B. Terms of payments are copied from invoice to credit memos when they are linked to.
C. Inserting a "V" in the invoice reference field during document entry means the terms of
payment are
activated in the non-invoice-related credit memos.
D. The day limits define the dates of the cash discount periods.
E. The system cannot define the splitment of an installment payment, at least you define it in
the terms of
payment.
Answer: D

SAP   C-TFIN52-64   C-TFIN52-64 examen   C-TFIN52-64

NO.10 It is possible for the planned depreciation to be displayed through through assigning
depreciation
terms and a planned start-up date to the order or project.
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

SAP   C-TFIN52-64   C-TFIN52-64

NO.11 Preparation for year-end closing: (one or more options are true)
A. If you change any depreciation values, you must run depreciation posting again.
B. Once depreciation has been posted in FI-AA and FI, a balance sheet and profit and loss
statement can
be created.
C. If an area posts APC values to the general ledger periodically, you will need to run report
RAPERPOO
for periodic posting.
D. After the depreciation lists and asset history sheet have been checked, depreciation is
posted.
E. If the final result is not satisfactory, you can carry out depreciation simulation or (bulk)
changes, or
make adjustment postings.
Answer: A, B, C, D, E

SAP examen   C-TFIN52-64 examen   C-TFIN52-64   C-TFIN52-64   C-TFIN52-64

NO.12 What are the elements that are available to enter rules for the prerequisites (validation
& substitution)
and check (validation):
A. Logical Operator (boolean terms)
B. Comparison operators
C. Operands
Answer: A, B, C

SAP   C-TFIN52-64 examen   certification C-TFIN52-64

NO.13 According the Replacement Values: Index (one or more options may be true)
A. An indexed revaluation can also be calculated for accumulated depreciation and imputed
interest.
B. Only year-dependent index classes are used.
C. The index series must be assigned to an index class.
D. You enter the index series in the asset or in the asset class.
Answer: A, B, C, D

SAP   certification C-TFIN52-64   C-TFIN52-64   C-TFIN52-64 examen   C-TFIN52-64

NO.14 It is not possible to use two check series for making payment
A. False
B. True
Answer: A

SAP   certification C-TFIN52-64   C-TFIN52-64

NO.15 The area menus can be displayed but not changed in area menu maintenance
A. false
B. true
Answer: A

SAP examen   certification C-TFIN52-64   C-TFIN52-64

NO.16 What is the purpose of the terms of payment? (Please choose the correct sentence)
A. Define the baseline date.
B. Enable the cross-company code transactions.
C. Calculate a cash discount and invoice due date.
D. Calculate only the required conditions for SD invoices.
E. Calculate the tax amounts.
Answer: C

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NO.17 The ______ specifies the master data level at which each field can be maintained.
A. Maintenance level
Answer: A

SAP   C-TFIN52-64 examen   C-TFIN52-64

NO.18 What is a SAP Business Object (Please choose the correct sentence)?
A. It is all the transaction data generated via transactions.
B. It is the instanced class of the Class Builder.
C. It is composed of tables that are related in a business context, including the related
application
programs and it is maintained in the Class Repository.
D. It is the representation of a central business object in the real world, such as an employee,
sales order,
purchase requisition, invoice and so on.
E. It is a sequence of dialog steps that are consistent in a business context and that belong
together
logically.
Answer: D

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NO.19 What are the fields that can be used as selection criteria in reporting from the below
given options.
A. Evaluation groups: These are asset master data fields for which the user can specify use
and meaning.
B. Reason for investment: In this master record field, you can enter a reason for the
investment.
C. Environmental protection indicator. Here you can enter a measure taken to comply with
environmental
protection laws.
Answer: A, B, C

SAP examen   C-TFIN52-64   C-TFIN52-64   C-TFIN52-64 examen   certification C-TFIN52-64   C-TFIN52-64

NO.20 Tax calculation by system are usually posted via separate line item to a special tax
account in standard
scenario
A. true
B. falsh
Answer: A

SAP   C-TFIN52-64   C-TFIN52-64 examen   C-TFIN52-64   C-TFIN52-64

NO.21 The number of the G/L account to be charged can be automatically suggested by the
system provided
that automatic account determination has been defined for company code.
A. false
B. true
Answer: A

SAP examen   certification C-TFIN52-64   C-TFIN52-64 examen

NO.22 Identify the features of a Business Blueprint from the following list: (There are more
than one correct
answer for this question)
A. Business process groups
B. Blueprint document
C. Associated items
D. Business groups
E. Business scenarios
F. Blueprint structure
Answer: A, B, C, E, F

certification SAP   C-TFIN52-64   C-TFIN52-64

NO.23 If a closed year is subsequently released for posting, it can only be closed again once
the year-end
closing program has been re-run.
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

certification SAP   C-TFIN52-64   C-TFIN52-64 examen

NO.24 The master data section of ASSET CLASS consists with control data and default
values for the
administrative data in the asset master record
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A

SAP examen   C-TFIN52-64   C-TFIN52-64

NO.25 The ______ determines the depreciation start date of the asset. This date is determined
for each
depreciation are by the period control method of the depreciation key.
A. asset value date
Answer: A

SAP examen   C-TFIN52-64   C-TFIN52-64   C-TFIN52-64   C-TFIN52-64 examen

NO.26 By the period control method of the depreciation key, the asset value date is
determined for each
depreciation area.
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

SAP   C-TFIN52-64   C-TFIN52-64 examen   certification C-TFIN52-64

NO.27 The transfer from the under-construction phase to completed asset is referred to here
as ______.
A. capitalization of the asset under construction
Answer: A

SAP   C-TFIN52-64   certification C-TFIN52-64   C-TFIN52-64   C-TFIN52-64   certification C-TFIN52-64

NO.28 What does the monitor provide? (4)
(Note: we can have more than one correct sentence. Please select the sentences you think
they are
correct)
A. The access to messages and result lists.
B. The visualization of both entire technical and business information.
C. The opportunity to postpone someone's tasks.
D. The opportunity to view the work of colleagues and the processing sequence, as well as
the technical
and business status of every task.
E. The ability to monitor the total progress of period-end closing when the user uses more
than one task
list.
Answer: A, B, D, E

SAP examen   C-TFIN52-64   C-TFIN52-64   C-TFIN52-64   certification C-TFIN52-64

NO.29 [FI-Master Data] Field Status group control:
A. The GL account group.
B. The fields for data entry screens.
C. The number ranger.
D. The account type.
Answer: B

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NO.30 What are the depreciation terms that are mainly used as additional parameters in the
cost-accounting
depreciation area?
A. scrap value
B. index
C. variable depreciation portion
Answer: A, B, C

certification SAP   C-TFIN52-64   C-TFIN52-64

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Code d'Examen: C-TSCM42-64
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Production - Planning & Manufacturing with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 The company that you advise does not want to manage certain value-intensive materials in
the warehouse stock. Instead, the user wishes to control material provision in such a way that these
materials are procured directly for the production and/or process order. How can you fulfill this
request? (Choose two.)
A. Using the special procurement key subcontracting in the material master for the component
B. Using the special procurement key direct procurement/external procurement in the material
master for the component
C. Using the item type non-stock item in the bill of material for the material in question
D. Using the procurement type external procurement in the material master for the component
E. Controlling the material in question as a co-product
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 The user you advise requests that you make it possible for the user to produce materials for
stock,for customer orders, projects, orders and cost centers with production orders.
Where can you make settings to ensure these options?
A. Serial number profile.
B. Settlement profile.
C. Valuation variant.
D. Production scheduling profile.
Answer: B

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NO.3 An enterprise based in the USA produces an end product that is used with the unit of
measure"pound" (LB). The material is now to be marketed in the EU. A prerequisite for this is that
the material can be sold with the unit kilogram (KG).
Which of the following solutions does SAP ECC offer?
A. In the basic data customizing, you create a unit of measure group that converts pounds to
kilograms. You then assign this to the material master on basic data view 1.
B. You create a new material with a reference to the original material and assign the metric unit of
measure to the new material master.
C. In the material master, you create a conversion factor for converting pounds to kilograms on
basic data view 1.
D. There is no need to take any action. There is a general conversion in the central customizing of
units of measurements, so that automatic conversion of pounds to kilograms takes place.
Answer: D

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NO.4 The master data for an in-house production process is to be set up in the SAP ECC system. To
do this, you should create a suitable routing that plans for five operations in an initial sequence
(10,20, 30, 40, 50). There should be an option of relocating operations 30 and 40 to a second
sequence on other work centers if there are capacity bottlenecks. What sequence type would you
use to create the second sequence in the system?
A. Substitute sequence
B. Alternative sequence
C. Parallel sequence
D. Standard sequence
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following activities is necessary for the capacity availability check to be carried
out automatically when a production order is released?
A. Activate the availability check and assign a checking rule to the work center for the operation to
be checked.
B. Activate the availability check and assign the check control to the plant.
C. Activate the availability check and assign an overall profile in check control for the business
function order release.
D. Activate the availability check and assign an availability checking group to the material master
for the product to be produced.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A customer has been using planning strategies 30 (production by lots) and 10 (anonymous
maketo-stock production) in SAP ECC. The customer wishes to move in part to planning strategy 40
(planning with final assembly). The issue of consumption has an effect here for the first time.
Which properties apply for consumption with planning strategy 40? (Choose two.)
A. Consumption can lead to an increase of the originally planned overall production quantity.
B. Consumption can result in the subsequent specification and adjustment of planning elements in
terms of quantity and date, by means of customer orders that arrive.
C. Consumption can reduce the originally planned production quantity.
D. Consumption creates a static and binding assignment, between the planned independent
requirements recorded in advance and the customer requirements that arrive, for the entire
procurement process.
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 Which of the following requirements for a manufacturing plant can be supported by using
process
manufacturing? (Choose three.)
A. Master recipe-based manufacturing.
B. Material requirements planning for production resources.
C. Manufacturing without orders.
D. Variable calculation of material quantities (product output, material usage).
E. Manufacturing in charge quantities.
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.8 Which one of the following scheduling types cannot be assigned as default to an order type
(production order)?
A. Midpoint
B. Forward
C. Only capacity requirements
D. Backward
Answer: A

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NO.9 In the SAP ECC system, a material is produced with the help of production orders. Though
originally used for rate-based planning only, the planning table is to be used to plan this material.
On the initial screen of the planning table, you select this material and then receive a message
informing you that you cannot use the planning table for this material.
Which one of the following reasons for this message applies?
A. The series production indicator has not been set.
B. There is no valid production version for this material.
C. There are no planned orders or production orders present.
D. There are no requirements present.
Answer: B

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NO.10 In your company planning strategies are used in the SAP-ECC demand management that are
based on consumption. Which of the following statements about consumption is true? (Choose
two.)
A. A consumption situation is dynamic and is always restructured with the planning run.
B. Consumption can also take place between order reservations and planned independent
requirements, depending on the strategy.
C. Consumption always takes place on the material level between the planned independent
requirements and the planned orders.
D. The consumption parameters (consumption mode and consumption interval) can be set in the
material master or in the MRP group.
Answer: B,D

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