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Code d'Examen: A2040-988
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: Administering IBM Lotus Sametime 8.5)
Questions et réponses: 131 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is NOT required in an LDAP directory used for Sametime?
A. the base entries do not overlap
B. SSL is enabled on the LDAP server
C. each entry has a uniquely defined DN
D. the LDAP directory contains the mail attribute
Answer: B

IBM examen   A2040-988   A2040-988

NO.2 Which of the following is true regarding Horizontal vs. Vertical clustering?
A. Vertical clusters require more machines.
B. Vertical clusters do not require a Deployment manager.
C. Horizontal clusters do not require a Deployment Manager.
D. Vertical clusters provide software level failover; Horizontal clusters provide software and
hardware
failover and load balancing.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following components CANNOT be clustered using the Sametime
Guided Activities?
A. Sametime Gateway
B. Sametime Proxy Server
C. Sametime Media Manager
D. Sametime Meeting Server
Answer: A

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NO.4 To retrieve the build number of the Sametime Community server, Karen performs
which of the
following?
A. She types 'Show Build' from the Domino server console
B. From a browser, she navigates to http://servername/sametime/buildinfo.txt
C. She opens the STCONFIG.NSF database from a browser and clicks the server
information link
D. She opens theSametime Administration Tool from a browser and uses the Server
Information-Server
Build
Answer: B

IBM examen   A2040-988   A2040-988   A2040-988

NO.5 You installed the IBM Lotus Sametime System console on Windows and want to
administer your
Sametime 8.5 servers. What the web address would you use to get to your Sametime
System Console?
A. http://serverhostname.domain:8700/ibm/console
B. http://serverhostname.domain:8500/ibm/webadmin
C. http://serverhostname.domain:8700/sametime/console
D. http://serverhostname.domain:8000/ibm/adminconsole
Answer: A

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NO.6 Carol is planning to deploy Sametime 8.5 in her company and is looking to create a
vertical cluster of
the Sametime Meeting Server, the Sametime Media Manager and the Sametime Proxy
Server.
How many nodes does she need to deploy?
A. 2 nodes
B. 3 nodes
C. 4 nodes
D. 6 nodes
Answer: B

IBM   A2040-988   A2040-988

NO.7 You are currently using a Domino native directory for Sametime authentication and
would want to start
using Domino LDAP authentication in Sametime 8.5. What steps are required to migrate to
LDAP?
A. The LDAP service and the community server run on separate Domino servers.
B. Run name conversion utility on thesametime server.
C. The LDAP task must be running on your Domino server.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Will is installing the new Sametime 8.5 Meeting Server. Which of the following is NOT
an option when
selecting the type of deployment for WebSphere in the Guided Activity for Sametime Meeting
Server?
A. Cell
B. Node Agent
C. DeploymentManager ?Primary Node
D. DeploymentManager ?Secondary Node
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which one of the following components is NOT part of the Sametime Media Manager
A. Packet Switcher
B. Conference Manager
C. Sametime Reflector
D. SIP Proxy/Registrar
Answer: C

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NO.10 Utilizing the silent installer for the Sametime Connect client, Bill must provide specific
settings for the
silentinstall.ini file to enable SPENGO. Which of the following is required?
A. STUSERNAME
B. STSERVERSSLPORT
C. STAUTHSERVERURL
D. STCLIENTALTERNATELOGIN
Answer: C

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NO.11 You upgraded your Sametime Community server to 8.5 without using the System
Console. Now you
want to be able to administer it through the system console. What is the best option to
accomplish this?
A. Reinstall theSametime System Console
B. Reinstall theSametime Community Server
C. Register the upgraded server with the System Console
D. Login to the System Console and rerun the install guided activity
Answer: C

IBM   A2040-988   A2040-988   A2040-988

NO.12 Chris has configured usage limits in meetings for his company Sametime classic
server. When a limit
is reached, which of the following occurs?
A. People are denied from starting instant meetings or attending meetings
B. People receive a prompt that the server may possibly be overloaded, but they are allowed
to enter the
meeting
C. A warning is written to the log and a notification sent to the administrator for capacity
planning. The
meetings continue to run
D. Current meetings continue but future meetings will not go active and instant meetings will
not begin
until the limit is raised or no longer exceeded
Answer: A

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NO.13 If you are configuring the Lotus Sametime Media Manager to use SSL (Secure Socket
Layer), you
must do the following:
A. Cross certify youSametime System Console with Sametime Community server
B. Make sure the server's certificate has been added to theSametime System Console's trust
store.
C. Select that the server uses TLS in theSametime Media Manager connection properties in
the
Sametime System console.
D. Complete the Guided Activity for setting up SSL on theSametime Media Manager and
restart the
Sametime System Console.
Answer: B

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NO.14 After installing Lotus Notes with the embedded Sametime client, Patty found the
Sametime client is not
connecting to the Sametime Community Server. Which of the following scenarios can cause
this
problem?
A. The Lotus Notes client hasn't been restarted.
B. The Sametime Proxy Server hasn't been configured to accept Sametime connections.
C. The Sametime Community Server hasn't been configured to accept Sametime
connections.
D. The Sametime client is not connecting to the Sametime Community server using the
appropriate port.
Answer: D

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NO.15 *By default, which one of the following ports is used by the Lotus Sametime Community
Server to
access the Sametime System Console HTTPS port?
A. 9080
B. 9092
C. 9443
D. 9880
Answer: B

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NO.16 Jon, the Sametime administrator, wishes to push plug-in updates to his users for the
Sametime
Connect client. Which of the following is the type of file that must be specified in the
Sametime server
configuration to provide update information to the clients?
A. site.xml
B. client.xml
C. plugin.xml
D. update.xml
Answer: A

IBM examen   A2040-988   A2040-988 examen

NO.17 Which of the following is the message that checks the connectivity between Lotus
Sametime Connect
and the Community server and allows you to get timely notification if you are disconnected
from the
Communty server ?
A. Keepalive signal
B. Community polling
C. Location awareness
D. Connectivity status
Answer: A

certification IBM   A2040-988   A2040-988   A2040-988

NO.18 You are planning to upgrade your Sametime community server to version 8.5 but do
not want to use the
Sametime System Console to upgrade your server. Which of the following is correct?
A. You can manually run a guided activity without the System Console.
B. The Sametime System Console is required for you to upgrade your Sametime Community
server to
8.5.
C. You can configure the LotusSametime Community Server to directly access the Lotus
Domino
Directory if you do not plan to use the Lotus Sametime System Console.
D. If you are not previously using LDAP forSametime authentication, it is a required you use
LDAP
authentication to authenticate to a Sametime 8.5 Community server.
Answer: C

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NO.19 In Sametime 8.5, which best describes where can you configure the Sametime
Community Clusters
documents?
A. In the stconfig.nsf
B. In the sametime.ini
C. In theSametime System Console
D. In the stconfig.nsf andSametime System Console
Answer: A

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NO.20 Due to the number of external users utilizing your Sametime environment, you have
had to enable
tunneling on your external Sametime server. With tunneling enabled, which of the following
ports does
Domino HTTP listen to by default?
A. 80
B. 443
C. 8088
D. 9081
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: C2140-137
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Advanced Rational Application Developer v7)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 In JSP, custom tag libraries can be used to _____.
A. enable better searching in a Web application
B. package tag extensions for JSP
C. package JSPs for exporting to other projects
D. package tag extensions for JSF
Answer: B

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NO.2 A developer is building an application where the home page will have links displayed
for administrators,
which will not be available for regular users of the application. Otherwise, the home page is
identical for
administrators and regular users. A J2EE role-based security pattern is being implemented
with one role
for users and one role for staff. What is the BEST way to display different versions of the
home page?
A. You map the two roles to different JSPs for the home page, where one includes the extra
links (for
administrators) and the other does not (for users).
B. It is not possible to display different versions of the same page for users who have
different roles.
C. You apply declarative security to the body of the JSP where the links that are only
available to the
administrators are declared to be accessible only to that role.
D. You implement the links using a J2EE custom library, which contains a call to
isUserInRole() on the
HttpServletRequest to see if the link should be displayed or not.
Answer: D

IBM   C2140-137   C2140-137   C2140-137

NO.3 During the development process, a programmer selects an EJB project containing
entity beans and
selects Prepare For Deployment. Which action does this operation perform?
A. updates the deployment descriptor with a reference to the EJB JAR
B. generates the helper classes to map entity beans to the database
C. generates the EJB JAR file and includes it in the associated enterprise application project
D. guides the user through a wizard interface to determine the mapping between the fields in
the entity
bean and their associated database fields
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is best practice when designing a data-intensive EJB application?
A. set the values of Entity EJBs by passing them a Data Transfer object containing the
necessary data
B. provide major Entity EJBs with a remote interface and relate other Entity EJBs to them via
Container
Managed Relations (CMR)
C. provide all Entity EJBs with a local interface only and perform all remote access through
Session EJBs
D. encapsulate frequently accessed read-only data in an Entity EJB for efficient caching
Answer: C

IBM   certification C2140-137   C2140-137   C2140-137

NO.5 The embedded Apache Derby database makes development easier. However, it has
one severe
limitation that prevents its use in production environments. What is this limitation?
A. Connection pooling is disallowed and results in degraded performance.
B. It provides a reduced data type set without the ability to define BLOB (Binary Large
Object) or CLOB
(Character Large Object) columns types.
C. It provides only English language support.
D. It allows only one application to access the database to create a connection.
E. The use of the JDBC drivers is proprietary and requires a for purchase license.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: C2090-546
Nom d'Examen: IBM (DB2 9.7 Database Administrator for Linux UNIX or Windows Upgrade)
Questions et réponses: 78 Q&As

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NO.1 Index INDEX1 has been created as follows: CREATE INDEX index1 ON table_x (cola) Which of the
following actions can be done through an ALTER INDEX statement?
A. Add a column to the index key.
B. Change the PCTFREE specification.
C. Make the COMPRESS attribute YES or NO.
D. Make this index the clustering index.
Answer: C

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NO.2 If table TAB_A has just been created as follows:
Which command will create a compression dictionary for table TAB_A?
A. DELETE FROM tab_a
B. REORG TABLE tab_a
C. UPDATE tab_a SET c1 = c1*1.1
D. LOAD FROM data.del OF DEL INSERT INTO tab_a
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of following is true when decomposing multiple XML documents?
A. It is possible to decompose multiple XML documents stored in a binary column or in an XML column.
B. It is not possible to decompose multiple XML documents stored in a binary column or in an XML
column.
C. It is possible to decompose multiple XML documents stored in a binary column but not in an XML
column.
D. It is possible to decompose multiple XML documents stored in a XML column but not in an binary
column.
Answer: A

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NO.4 If table TAB_A is created as follows:
Assuming the cardinality of the columns is the same, which statement will create an index that will benefit
the most from compression?
A. CREATE INDEX taba_idx ON tab_a (c2)
B. CREATE INDEX taba_idx ON tab_a (c4)
C. ALTER TABLE tab_a ADD PRIMARY KEY (c1)
D. CREATE UNIQUE INDEX taba_idx ON tab_a (c2)
Answer: A

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NO.5 Table TAB_A and index TABA_IDX were created by executing these SQL statements:
If this SQL statement is executed after 100,000 records have been inserted into table TAB_A: ALTER
INDEX taba_idx COMPRESS NO;
Which statement correctly describes what will happen to index TABA_IDX?
A. The index will be uncompressed immediately.
B. The index will remain compressed until it is REORGed.
C. The index will remain compressed until the COMPRESS attribute for table TAB_A has been set to NO.
D. The index will remain compressed until the COMPRESS attribute for table TAB_A has been set to NO
and both the table and the index have been REORGed.
Answer: B

IBM   certification C2090-546   C2090-546

NO.6 When storing XML data in a DB2 database, which statement is valid.?
A. A table with an XML column can be defined in a non-Unicode database.
B. A table with an XML column can only be defined in a Unicode database.
C. A table with an XML column can be defined in a non-Unicode database but the table containing the
XML column will be stored in Unicode.
D. A table with an XML column can be defined in a non-Unicode database but the database must be
converted to Unicode before the XML columns can be used.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following SQL statements will return monitoring information of tables in the DB2USER
schema that begin with the letter 'A'?
A. SELECT * FROM mon_get_table('DB2USER','A%',-2)
B. SELECT * FROM TABLE(mon_get_table('DB2USER','A%',-2))
C. SELECT * FROM mon_get_table('DB2USER',",-2) WHERE TABNAME LIKE 'A%'
D. SELECT * FROM TABLE(mon_get_table('DB2USER','',-2)) WHERE TABNAME LIKE 'A%'
Answer: D

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NO.8 Given the following DDL statements:
What is the end result of the CREATE INDEX statement?
A. TBSP21 and TBSP22 will each contain one local index.
B. INDEX_TS will contain one non-partitioned index since the create index command is missing the
PARTITION keyword.
C. TBSP11 and TBSP12 will each contain one local index since the local indexes will physically reside in
the same table space as the related data.
D. TBSP21 will contain one index because NEW_IDX is not partitioned and will automatically go into the
first index partition listed in the create table statement.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which is true regarding collecting distribution statistics for XML data?
A. XML distribution statistics are collected for indexes over XML data of type VARCHAR.
B. XML distribution statistics are collected for indexes over XML data of type VARCHAR HASHED.
C. XML distribution statistics are collected when collecting index statistics during index creation.
D. XML distribution statistics are collected for partitioned indexes over XML data defined on a data
partitioned table.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Click on the Exhibit button
Given the following DDL statements:
If COL2 contains XML documents similar to the one shown in the scenario, what is the end result of the
CREATE INDEX statement?
A. An error will be returned because it is not possible to create an index for an XML column like COL2.
B. TBSP11 and TBSP12 will each contain one local index for XML_INDEX since the local indexes will
physically reside in the same table space as the related data.
C. An error will be returned because it is not possible to include more than one column as part of the
CREATE INDEX statement when one of the columns is of type XML.
D. A non-partitioned index will be created in table space TBSP21 since the INDEX IN clause of the table
definition is ignored and XML_INDEX will automatically be created within the first index partition listed in
the create table statement.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: C2050-723
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere Commerce V7.0 Application Development )
Questions et réponses: 112 Q&As

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NO.1 An application developer has customized the login functionality of the Madisons starter
store and needs
to unit test the customization using the Storefront Test Automation Engine. If the unit test has
to be
performed with two different data sets (e.g., user1 / password1, user2 / password2), how
should the
application developer include the test data in the test case?
A. Include the test data in an XML data file.
B. Include both data sets in a single test automation script.
C. For each data set write a separate test automation script.
D. Invoke the test automation script from a command line and provide test data as command
line
parameters.
Answer: A

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NO.2 An application developer needs to encrypt sensitive pieces of information while
integrating the Social
Commerce sMash application with BazaarVoice. Which value in the adapter.config must be
encrypted?
A. adminPassword
B. adminSecret
C. restAdminPassword
D. sharedKey
Answer: D

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NO.3 An application developer needs to define the store level action mapping to specify a
target JSP file
which will format Atom feeds for WebSphere Commerce Web services. Where:
ShowCatalogGroupDataAreaType is the name of the SDO for the noun.
SerializeCatalogGroupMadisonsAtom.jsp is the feed formatting JSP file. What should be the
action
mapping in the struts-extension.xml file?
A. <action path="/ShowCatalogGroupDataAreaTypeAtom/0"
forward="/atom/Store/SerializeCatalogGroupMadisonsAtom.jsp"/>
B. <action path="/ShowCatalogGroupDataAreaTypeAtom/<store_Id>"
forward="/atom/Store/SerializeCatalogGroupMadisonsAtom.jsp"/>
C. <action path="/ShowCatalogGroupDataAreaType/0"
forward="/Rest/WebContent/atom/Store/SerializeCatalogGroupMadisonsAtom.jsp"/>
D. <action path="/ShowCatalogGroupDataAreaType/<store_Id>"
forward="/Rest/WebContent/atom/Store/SerializeCatalogGroupMadisonsAtom.jsp"/>
Answer: B

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NO.4 An application developer has to change the style of Social Commerce widgets. What
action does the
application developer have to take?
A. Modify soccomie.css and soccom.css
B. Modify the widget definition in REST API.
C. Modify REST API, soccom.css and soccomie.css
D. Modify soccomie_style.css and soccom_style.css
Answer: A

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NO.5 An application developer is creating different outbound queues for different message
types while
integrating with WebSphere MQ. Which method of the SendMsgCmd command must be
used to set the
queue destination in the custom code?
A. setMsgData
B. setConfigData
C. setContentData
D. setCommandData
Answer: B

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NO.6 The business logic layer in WebSphere Commerce runtime is implemented using the
command
pattern where application logic is specified independently from the presentation layer. Which
statement
about the implemented commands for the business logic layer is correct?
A. Entity beans act as an interface between the business components and the database.
B. Task commands are used to implement application logic and should not be accessed by
the
presentation layer.
C. View commands are invoked by the task commands and are used to compose a view as a
response to
a client request.
D. Data bean commands are invoked by the data bean manager and are used to populate
fields of a data
bean with data from a persistent object.
Answer: B

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NO.7 An application developer notices that a policy that is expected to grant access
appears in the trace,
however it is not being applied. In addition an error similar to the following example is logged
to the
trace.log file. PolicyManagerImpl.isAllowed isAllowed? User=510; Action=Execute;
Protectable=com.ibm.commerce.catalog.commands.ProductDisplayCmdImpl; Owner=2002;
Resource
Ancestor Orgs=2002,-2001; Resource Applicable Orgs=2002 PolicyManagerImpl.isAllowed
Found
PolicyName:AllUsersExecuteResellerUserCmdResourceGroup; PolicyType: 3; PolicyOwner:
-2001
PolicyManagerImpl.getPolicyApplicableOrgs No organizations subscribe to a policy group
with this policy
PolicyManagerImpl.isAllowed Policy does not apply to the resource's applicable
organizations ...
PolicyManagerImpl.isAllowed PASSED? =false Apart from ensuring that the resource owner
is
subscribing to the correct policy groups and subscribing the organization to the policy group,
what are the
correct values to insert into the ACPLGPSUBS table?
A. orgentity_id = 2002 and acpolgrp_id = 10001(ManagementAndAdministrationPolicyGroup)
and
orgentity_id = 2002 and acpolgrp_id =10003
(CommonShoppingPolicyGroup)
B. orgentity_id = -2001 and acpolgrp_id =
10001(ManagementAndAdministrationPolicyGroup) and
orgentity_id = -2001 and acpolgrp_id =10003
(CommonShoppingPolicyGroup)
C. orgentity_id = -2001 and acpolgrp_id =
10001(ManagementAndAdministrationPolicyGroup)and
orgentity_id = 2002 and acpolgrp_id =10003
(CommonShoppingPolicyGroup)
D. orgentity_id = 2002 and acpolgrp_id =
10001(ManagementAndAdministrationPolicyGroup)and
orgentity_id = -2001 and acpolgrp_id =10003
(CommonShoppingPolicyGroup)
Answer: A

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NO.8 An application developer has created a new Social Commerce adapter implementation
for a new
service provider. Which of the following files must the application developer modify as part of
configuring
the new adapter?
A. SocApp > config > ivy.xml
SocApp > config > adapter.config
B. SocApp > config > ivy.xml
SocApp > config > soccom_adapter.config
C. SocApp > config > soccom_instance.xml
SocApp > config > adapter.config
D. SocApp > config > soccom_config.xml
SocApp > config > soccom_adapter.config
Answer: A

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NO.9 When using the 'No Validation or Reservation' payment rule, with 'finalize payment'
event, what is the
target state of payment?
A. APPROVED
B. DEPOSITED
C. FINALIZED
D. DNE (Does Not Exist)
Answer: B

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NO.10 When running a JUnit test case for a Business Object Document (BOD) in WebSphere
Commerce
Developer, which feature of Rational Application Developer will allow the application
developer to view the
request and response documents.?
A. Console
B. Code Coverage
C. TCP/IP Monitor
D. Software Analyzer
Answer: C

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NO.11 A customer places an order for two items that total $300. Item A costs $100 and is in
stock. Item B
costs $200 and is not in stock but will be available in two days. The customer uses a credit
card to pay for
the order. If this credit card payment method uses 'Early Approval' payment rule, which
among the
following are TRUE?
A. $100 will be deposited at the time of shipment of Item A
B. $100 will be validated and deposited at the time of order capture
C. $100 will be validated and approved at the time of order capture
D. $300 will be validated at the time of order capture and deposited at the time of shipment of
Item B
E. $300 will be reserved at the time of shipment of Item A and deposited at the time of
shipment of Item B
Answer: A,C

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NO.12 An application developer is enabling WebSphere Application Server Security with
Federated LDAP
Repositories using the WebSphere Commerce Integration Wizard and WebSphere
Commerce Developer.
Which file must be used for setting the user Security Role, if Application Security is enabled?
A. ibm-security-ext.xml
B. ibm-security-bnd.xml
C. ibm-application-bnd.xml
D. ibm-application-ext.xml
Answer: C

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NO.13 In what format are test cases written to test Management Center using the test
automation framework?
A. XML file
B. ANT script
C. JUnit class
D. OpenLaszlo class
Answer: A

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NO.14 In the Catalog Entry data model, which table represents a family of products with a
common name and
description, used for fulfillment?
A. CATENTRY
B. CATENTTYPE
C. BASEITEM
D. ITEMFFMCTR
Answer: C

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NO.15 An application developer needs to ensure that multiple portlets on a page and across
pages can
communicate as one client with the WebSphere Commerce Server. Where in the portlet
session should
the authentication callback handler object and business context object be stored?
A. contextId
B. contextKey
C. contextData
D. contextService
Answer: B

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NO.16 After running the data load utility, the application developer notices an error similar to
the following: An
error occurred while attempting to populate the table ITEMSPC because the mandatory
parameter
ParentProductIdentifier was missing. The ID was not resolved for the table ITEMSPC with the
unique
index data [DL_PROD1_SKU1, 7000000000000000054]. Stack trace:
com.ibm.commerce.foundation.dataload.exception.DataLoadApplicationException: The ID
was not
resolved for the table ITEMSPC with the unique index data [DL_PROD1_SKU1,
7000000000000000054].
at
com.ibm.commerce.foundation.dataload.idresolve.IDResolverForOneTable.resolveId(IDReso
lverForOne
Table.java:336) at
com.ibm.commerce.foundation.dataload.idresolve.IDResolverImpl.resolveId(IDResolverImpl.j
ava:266) at
com.ibm.commerce.foundation.dataload.businessobjectmediator.AbstractBusinessObjectMe
diator.resolv
eIds( AbstractBusinessObjectMediator.java:1164) at
com.ibm.commerce.foundation.dataload.businessobjectmediator.AbstractBusinessObjectMe
diator.resolv
eId(A bstractBusinessObjectMediator.java:1118) at
com.ibm.commerce.inventory.dataload.mediator.AbstractInventoryMediator.resolveItemSPCI
d(AbstractIn
vent oryMediator.java:656) at
com.ibm.commerce.inventory.dataload.mediator.InventoryReceiptMediator.populateRECEIP
T(Inventory
Receipt Mediator.java:251) at
com.ibm.commerce.inventory.dataload.mediator.InventoryReceiptMediator.transform(Invento
ryReceiptM
ediat or.java:120) <...> Note: The information in bold represents variable information:
7000000000000000054.is the member_id, and DL_PROD1_SKU1 is the partnumber. What is
the cause
of the error?
A. The item id is incorrect or missing.
B. The unique index constraint is violated.
C. The inventory value for the product is missing.
D. The inventory system being used is set to ATP while loading non-ATP data.
Answer: D

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NO.17 After migrating the store assets project, the application developer notices an
exception similar to the
following example. [12/22/09 13:13:11:859 PST] 00000012 WASSessionCor I
SessionContextRegistry
getSessionContext SESN0176I: Will create a new session context for application key
WC_default_host/webapp/wcs/stores [12/22/09 13:13:13:953 PST] 00000012 ValidatorPlug I
org.apache.struts.validator.ValidatorPlugIn initResources Loading validation rules file from
'/WEB-INF/validator-rules.xml' [12/22/09 13:13:35:265 PST] 00000012 TilesPlugin E
org.apache.struts.tiles.TilesPlugin initDefinitionsFactory Can't create Tiles definition factory
for module ''.
[12/22/09 13:13:35:265 PST] 00000012 ActionServlet E
org.apache.struts.action.ActionServlet init
Unable to initialize Struts ActionServlet due to an unexpected exception or error thrown, so
marking the
servlet as unavailable. Most likely, this is due to an incorrect or missing library dependency.
javax.servlet.ServletException: org.apache.struts.tiles.DefinitionsFactoryException: IO Error
while parsing
file '/WEB-INF/tiles-defs.xml'. Connection timed out: Before attempting to restart the server,
the
application developer needs to:
A. change the library dependency in the WEB-INF/struts-config.xml file.
B. change the Connection Time Out value in WEB-INF/tiles-defs.xml file.
C. modify the validation rules in /WEB-INF/validator-rules.xml file.
D. modify the DTD version in the <!DOCTYPE> element of WEB-INF/tiles-defs.xml file.
Answer: D

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NO.18 If the requirements are as follows, which of the URLs must the application developer
use? ?Check if
any of the parents of the specified organization are locked. ?Check if the specified
organization is the
parent organization of the user. If it is not, then check whether the user assumes the
Organization
Participant role in the specified organization or any of its ancestors. ?Reset all contract
information such
that new contracts can be applied to reflect the change in the active organization.
A. BuyerUserRegistrationUpdate URL
B. ContractSetInSession URL
C. OrgEntityUpdate URL
D. OrganizationSetInSession URL
Answer: D

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NO.19 WebSphere Commerce implements Business Object Document (BOD) processing
commands to
retrieve, process, modify, and synchronize data. Identify the correct verb/response mapping
in the BOD.
A. Get and Respond.
B. Process and Show.
C. Sync and ConfirmBOD.
D. Change and Acknowledge.
Answer: C

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NO.20 An application developer wants to develop new commands and refers to the
Information Center
documentation to understand how the commands and tasks are mapped to the table. Under
which section
would this information be found?
A. Reference
B. Tutorials
C. Developing
D. IBM Education Assistant
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: P2070-073
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM OmniFind Technical Sales Mastery Test V1)
Questions et réponses: 52 Q&As

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NO.1 Which feature of Insight Solutions with OmniFind Enterprise Edition enables a company
to achieve
greater insight into customer behavior and business performance?
A. Text analysis using plug in annotators and native support for UIMA
B. Pre-built solution accelerators
C. Featured links and "Do you mean" synonym definition
D. Native document-level security and static tokens
Answer: A

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NO.2 A text analysis module that focuses on a single task is called which of the following.?
A. A collection processing agent
B. A search engine
C. An annotator
D. A taxonomy engine
Answer: C

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NO.3 The IBM Classification Module can integrate with which IBM products?
A. OmniFind Enterprise Edition
B. OmniFind Discovery Edition
C. IBM FileNet P8
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following is an example of an Insight Solution that uses an out-of-the-box
regular
expression annotator and does not require programming?
A. Online Media Analysis
B. Semantic-enabled Enterprise Search
C. Quality Insight
D. All of the above
Answer: B

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NO.5 In order to integrate OmniFind Enterprise Edition with WebSphere Portal, you first must
install OmniFind
EE on which server?
A. Same server as Portal
B. Separate server from Portal
C. Either on the same server or on a separate server from Portal
D. On the same server as your corporate directory server
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: C2040-920
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebShpere Portal 7.0 Deployment and Administration)
Questions et réponses: 112 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following statements is true about client-side aggregation?
A. Client-side aggregation is generally slower than server-side aggregation because more
processing happens on the client computer, which is generally less powerful than the server.
B. The portal built-in Page Builder theme allows you to configure whether that page is
rendered in
client-side aggregation mode or in server-side aggregation mode for each page.
C. Client-side aggregation can be enabled for all existing portlets.
D. Client-side aggregation cannot be used on Firefox browsers.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Jeremy has connected his WebSphere Portal instance to an IBM Tivoli Directory
Server repository for
authentication purposes. However, while the majority of users are able to authenticate,
certain users are
not able to. Jeremy confirmed that the users are attempting to authenticate with the correct
user ID and
password. What is the most likely cause of this issue?
A. The users should log in with an email address instead of a user ID.
B. The location of the accounts in the LDAP tree is outside the scope of where WebSphere
Portal looks
for accounts.
C. The accounts are not members of the All Authenticated Portal Users group.
D. The LDAP bind password is configured incorrectly.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which one of the following statements is NOT true regarding Multiple Profiles?
A. Multiple profiles share the program files (binaries)
B. Each portal profile maintains its own independent configuration
C. ConfigEngine commands must be performed at the master configuration in order to
propagate
changes across all virtual profiles
D. All virtual profiles must be taken down when performing maintenance on the Portal
installation
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is a portal farm?
A. A portal farm is a series of portal clusters used in high availability production
environments.
B. A portal farm refers to a series of identically configured, standalone server instances.
C. A portal farm is an edition of WebSphere Portal customized for the agricultural industry.
D. A portal farm is a setup of servers that are tightly coupled for failover and recovery.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Tom is going to install a production WebSphere Portal server by replicating the
installation someone
else did for the test server. Where can he get the installation information generated during
the previous
installation of the test server?
A. <intall_tmp>/wpinstalllog.txt
B. <wp_root>/log/responselog.txt
C. <wp_root>/log/installresponse.txt
D. < intall_tmp>/installmessages.txt
Answer: B

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NO.6 After installing a WebSphere Portal V7.0 and a WebSphere Virtual Enterprise server as
a primary
server, which of the following options should be done to create a dynamic cluster in a
WebSphere
Extended Deployment cell?
A. Run the addNode command to add the node to the WebSphere Extended Deployment
cell, andrun the
ConfigEngine tasks to create and set up the cluster.
B. Run the ConfigEngine tasks to add the node to the WebSphere Extended Deployment
cell, and run the
ConfigEngine tasks to create and set
up the cluster.
C. Run the addNode tasks to add the node to the WebSphere Extended Deployment cell,
create the
dynamic cluster using WebSphere Extended
Deployment administrative console, and run the ConfigEngine tasks to set up the cluster.
D. Run the ConfigEngine tasks to add the node to the WebSphere Extended Deployment
cell,create the
dynamic cluster using WebSphere
Extended Deployment administrative console, and run the ConfigEngine tasks to set up the
cluster.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Monica is working with clients to architect the security of their new portal, which is a
two-server
clustered environment. Her client stores employee accounts in Microsoft Active Directory,
and customer
accounts in IBM Tivoli Directory Server. Both employees and customers must be able to log
in to the
portal. Which of the following statements is correct.?
A. The client must move all accounts into a single directory, and either of the two directory
servers are
appropriate.
B. The client should have one cluster member use Active Directory for authentication, and
the other
cluster member use Tivoli Directory Server.
C. The client must use distinct virtual portals for each of the two type of users (employee or
customer) to
handle this scenario.
D. It is acceptable to have multiple directory servers used for authentication for all servers in
a single
cluster.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Sherry is preparing the ConfigEngine properties files of different portal servers for
their
development, quality test, and production environments. She has noticed that the majority of
the
properties are the same except the names for the server hosts, nodes, and so on. Which of
the following
options would be the most efficient way for her to do this task?
A. Modify the properties file generated for each portal server separately.
B. Create a parent properties file of the common configurations and specify the location of
the parent
properties file to be used when executing
the ConfigEngine tasks.
C. Modify the properties file generated for one of portal servers, copy it to other portal
server,s and then
change those names manually.
D. Create a parent properties file of the common configurations, and create a script to be
able to replace
the properties of the properties files for
each portal server with the properties from the parent properties file automatically.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Sunil is designing a portal cluster for production. If he is using a 32-bit version of
WebSphere Portal
and has several multiprocessor servers with 16 GB of memory. What type of cluster
configuration should
he use?
A. A vertical cluster, because it ensures minimal latency between cluster members
B. A horizontal cluster, because it provides fault tolerance
C. A combination of vertical and horizontal clusters to gain the benefits of both configuration
types
D. A multiproduction cluster because it meets both high availability and high performance
criteria
Answer: C

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NO.10 Resources registered with the tagging and rating engine can be grouped by
administrators. Which of
the following options best describes the methods by which resources are grouped?
A. URI
B. Type specification
C. URI, category specification
D. URI, type specification, category specification
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following best describes the difference between horizontal and vertical
clustering?
A. Vertical clustering allows for users to authenticate against multiple LDAP sources;
horizontal clustering
allows multiple servers to act as one
server.
B. Horizontal clustering replicates the back-end database in real-time; vertical clustering
takes advantage
of multiple WebSphere servers as a
single cell.
C. Vertical clustering takes full advantage of the resources of a multiprocessor system;
horizontal
clustering provides fault-tolerance and
scalability by adding additional servers.
D. Horizontal clustering allows multiple HTTP servers to serve in a failover scenario; vertical
clustering
allows Portal servers to combine processor
and memory into one server.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which best describes valid aspects of deleting wikis and wiki pages?
A. A wiki page deleted directly in the wiki can be restored.
B. Deleting the wiki page also deletes the Web Content Viewer portlet and the web content
mapping.
C. To delete a wiki, you must delete the Web Content Viewer portlet and web content
mapping from the
portal page where the content is
rendered, and then delete the template library used to create the wiki.
D. Statement A, Statement B, and Statement C are valid.
E. Only Statement A, and Statement B are valid.
Answer: D

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NO.13 At a high level, which of the following options best describes the sequence of steps
that one should
take when setting up a WebSphere Portal static cluster?
A. 1. Install and configure WebSphere Portal as a stand-alone node for each cluster node.
2. Federate each portal server node to the WebSphere Application Server Network
Deployment cell using
the addNode command.
3. Create a portal cluster using the ConfigEngine tasks.
4. Configure the cluster members to use the same database and user registry.
B. 1. Use WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment to create a managed node for
each portal
node in the cluster.
2. Federate each of these nodes into the WebSphere Application Server Network
Deployment cell using
the addNode command.
3. Install and configure WebSphere Portal on each portal server node.
4. Use ConfigEngine tasks to configure the database, user registry, and create the cluster.
C. 1. Install WebSphere Portal on the first node, configure the database, and use the
ConfigEngine tasks to create a profile template.
2. Prepare the first node to communicate WebSphere Application Server Network
Deployment,and use
addNode and ConfigEngine tasks to
configure the cluster and user registry.
3. Install WebSphere Portal on additional nodes and use the profile template to configure.
4. Use the addNode and ConfigEngine tasks to federate the additional nodes and complete
the cluster
setup.
D. 1. Use WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment to create a cell and managed
node for
each portal node in the cluster.
2. Use the WebSphere Portal cluster profile template to install WebSphere Portal onto each
node.
3. Use the ConfigEngine tasks to configure the nodes to use the same database and user
registy.
4. Federate each of these nodes into the cluster by using the addNode and ConfigEngine
tasks.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Bill wants to set up a WebSphere Portal farm with four server instances. Which of the
following
statements regarding portal farms is true?
A. All four server instances that become a part of portal farm can be installed on different
operating systems.
B. Session persistence is enabled by default on all four server instances..
C. All the server instances need to be configured such that they have an identical security
configuration and user repository, such as LDAP.
D. Portal and content caches across all four server instances are replicated seamlessly.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Jim wants to enable the dynamic cache of output from portlet JSPs for different
windows and portlet
states. What does he need to do?
A. He needs to enable Servlet Caching using the Deployment Manager Administrative
Console.
B. He needs to enable Portlet Fragment Caching using the Deployment Manager
Administrative Console.
C. He needs to enable Portlet Fragment Caching using the portal administrative portlets.
D. He needs to enable Servlet Caching and the Portlet Fragment Caching in the
administrative console
for the application server.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following options describes a dynamic portal cluster?
A. A portal cluster managed by WebSphere Extended Deployment
B. A portal cluster managed by WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment
C. A portal cluster with a dynamic amount of JVM heap in each cluster member
D. A portal cluster managed by WebSphere Dynamic Cluster Manager
Answer: A

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NO.17 Jim is planning on setting up a Web Content Management System for his company
internet and intranet
site. He does not want any of the users to perform authoring actions like creating or editing
content in this
server. And he wants them to create/modify content in a separate environment. Identify the
best options
that he can consider
A. The WCM content has to be created in the same server it is rendered from.
B. He can setup a separate Authoring Server to create contents. Then setup syndication to
replicate data
from Authoring Server to a Deliver Server and render content in deliver server.
C. He can setup a separate Authoring Server to create contents. Then utilize the WSRP
support in the
JSR 286 web content viewer to display
content on a remote WebSphere Portal server or cluster.
D. Both B & C
Answer: D

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NO.18 Don is designing a highly available, secure, high traffic public website for his company.
If he wants to
use WebSphere Portal, what components should he consider?
A. Dynamic cache and a stand-alone portal server with disaster recovery
B. An authentication and authorization solution, a load balancing solution, a portal cluster
with HTTP
servers handling static content, and
clustered LDAP servers and database servers
C. A portal cluster, step-up authentication, and network-attached storage devices
D. An authentication and authorization solution, a business process engine, and a portal
cluster
Answer: B

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NO.19 Ronnie is designing a WebSphere Portal environment for her company in which
multiple
organizations within the company want to provide different portal environments to distinct
user groups.
What feature of WebSphere Portal should she use to meet this need?
A. Virtual portals with separate user realms and administrators to minimize hardware costs
and
configuration efforts
B. Multiple clusters in the same cell to avoid duplicate portal installations
C. Multiple portal installations on the same hardware using server virtualization to reduce
hardware costs
D. Shared portals to avoid duplicate effort between each portal
Answer: A

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NO.20 Where does the WebSphere Portal installation wizard log all messages?
A. <WebSphere Portal Root>/log directory
B. <WebSphere Portal Root>/InstallLog directory
C. c:\wpInstallLog.txt file
D. <profile>/PortalServer/temp/InstallLog directory
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: HIT-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Healthcare IT Technician Exam)
Questions et réponses: 524 Q&As

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NO.1 You work in a healthcare clinic that has many patients that receive benefits from a state program that
helps low-income families with the costs of healthcare. You have to work with the state office to check on
the design and deployment of healthcare information systems that can help check eligibility policies and
deploy electronic health records in treatment and billing. What is one of the names of this kind of
program?
A. Medicare
B. Medicaid
C. Tricare
D. FEHB
Answer: B

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NO.2 A dot matrix printer prints faded or light characters on the paper. What could be the most likely cause of
the issue?
A. Incorrect printer driver
B. A print head pin that is stuck inside the print head
C. Bad printer port
D. Worn-out ribbon
Answer: D

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NO.3 You are responsible for securing the network at a law firm. You are concerned about printer security.
What steps should you take to prevent printer security breaches? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose two.
A. Remove the printer's driver from user computers.
B. Scan printer hard drives for spyware and viruses.
C. Secure any administrative connections (SSH, Telnet, etc.) to printers.
D. Limit print jobs.
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 This group can apply for incentive payments for the adaption, implementation, upgrading and/or
meaningful use of certified electronic health record technology, due to provisions of the Health Information
Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act of 2009. Each correct answer represents a complete
solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Hospitals
B. Patients
C. Healthcare Clearinghouse
D. Eligible providers
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 You are hired by an Office Manager at a branch of a home health care service company to help install
software for client scheduling, billing and insurance coding and payroll preparation. The office manager is
impressed with your work and recommends your work to the next level of administration within the
organization. What position might that be? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose
all that apply.
A. Board of Directors
B. Billing Coordinator
C. Staffing Coordinator
D. President
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 Which of the following agencies is responsible for protecting the well being of all health care workers?
A. The Joint Commission
B. Food and Drug Administration
C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
D. Department of Health and Human Services
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following commands can verify connectivity between two computers? Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. NSLOOKUP
B. PING
C. IPCONFIG
D. TRACERT
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 According to HIPAA, how long must a medical practice retain a patient's medical records?
A. ten years
B. five years
C. three years
D. HIPAA does not mandate how long.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following types of health insurance allows the patient to direct his/her own care?
A. HMO
B. Indemnity Plan
C. Point of Service
D. PPO
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following types of budget incorporates the budgets of each individual business unit?
A. Organizational Budget
B. Operating Budget
C. Statistical Budget
D. Master Budget
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following database models is simply a collection of objects related by an object that has
certain characteristics?
A. Enterprise Model
B. Network Model
C. Hierarchal Model
D. Object Oriented Model
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following is a project management tool that is characterized by circles connected by lines
to indicate the sequence of event?
A. PERT Diagram
B. Gantt Chart
C. Venn Diagram
D. Critical Path
Answer: A

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NO.13 One of the data fields within the HL7 specifications is for Provider Type. What does this mean?
A. It's the type of healthcare facility the patient is being seen in.
B. Specifies the major grouping of the service or occupation of the practitioner
C. It's the type of insurer providing insurance coverage for the patient.
D. Specifies the seniority level of the physician
Answer: B

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Explanation: The specialty of the provider or practitioner is what is contained in the Provider Typedata
field, for example Behavioral and Social Services, or Neurology or Dermatology. Answer: A isincorrect.
Provider in this case refers to the physician or health care professional, not the facility.Answer: C is

CompTIA   HIT-001   HIT-001   HIT-001   HIT-001
incorrect. Provider does not refer to the insurance entity. Answer: D is incorrect."type" does not refer to
the seniority level of the physician, but their specialty field.

NO.14 A visiting IT professional is at an OBGYN practice and has been granted access to the computer system,
but not the practice's paper records it's previous system of charting for patients. It's after standard work
hours the IT professional is working late. He knows an ex-girlfriend used to be a patient at the practice
and decides he wants to see her charts, since he can't find her in the computer. What simple Physical
Safeguard would help fulfill HIPAA by protecting against the IT professional from accessing the practice's
PHI?
A. The paper records are in locked the mobile charting cabinets in the check-in area.
B. The paper records are color coded.
C. The paper records are locked in storage room.
D. The paper records are kept in a series of drawers only known to the Privacy Officer.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following portable computer systems is used by smart phones for offering advanced OS
capabilities? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. SBC
B. SFF
C. Tablet PC
D. PDA
E. laptop
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following measures the time a cathode-ray tube (CRT) electron beam takes to paint a
screen from top to bottom?
A. Bus width
B. Dot Pitch
C. Video RAM size
D. Refresh rate
Answer: D

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NO.17 You are asked to design an information system in which the client-server platform is based on the
following schematic. What type of architecture is incorporated within your information system?
A. Three-Tier Architecture
B. WAN Technology
C. Two-Tier Architecture
D. LAN Technology
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following traces and reports each router or gateway crossed by a TCP/IP packet on its
way to the remote host?
A. Helix
B. PATHPING
C. TRACERT
D. Netstat
Answer: C

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NO.19 Information such as your name, date of birth and social security number are all considered to be
protected health information. This information would fall into which of the following categories?
A. De-Indentified Health Information
B. Individually Identifiable Health Information
C. Archived Health Information
D. Demographic Health Information
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which of the following is the most secure among the following encryption algorithms?
A. 3DES
B. RC4
C. AES
D. DES
Answer: C

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